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1 Timothy 3:16 "All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness."

2006-06-07 07:19:19 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Why is Rapunzel not in the Bible?

2006-06-07 07:25:29 · update #1

9 answers

There were hundreds of different gospels floating around during Paul's time. Every author wanted to get into the Bible because it was good publicity. A bunch of early Christian politicians had to get together and decide which gospels were inspired by God and which weren't. Apparently God suddenly appeared and told them which hundred gospels they should throw out and burn. Right..

2006-06-07 07:26:53 · answer #1 · answered by this_one_dude 3 · 1 1

Rapunzel is not in the Holy Scriptures.

The questioner may be interested in something else which was written to Timothy:

(2 Timothy 2:23-26) Further, turn down foolish and ignorant questionings, knowing they produce fights. But a slave of the Lord does not need to fight, but needs to be gentle toward all, qualified to teach, keeping himself restrained under evil, instructing with mildness those not favorably disposed; as perhaps God may give them repentance leading to an accurate knowledge of truth, and they may come back to their proper senses out from the snare of the Devil

2006-06-07 14:43:54 · answer #2 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 0 0

It says that all scripture is inspired, it does NOT say ONLY scripture is inspired, and too many people think "all" means "only".

There was no New Testament when St. Paul wrote to Timothy. You don't have to be a scripture scholar to see that he is refering to the Old Testament, not to a Bible that did not yet exist. It's plain common sense.

This verse is grossly abused by the "bible-alone" crowd because the preceeding verse is never cited.

14 But as for you, continue in what you have learned {TRADITION} and have firmly believed, knowing from whom you learned it (MAGISTERIUM} 15 and how from childhood [u]you have been acquainted with the sacred writings (SCRIPTURE} which are able to instruct you for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.

Sadly, Protestants seem to think that because we do not hold to Sola Scriptura, Catholics do no settle doctrinal disputes from Scripture. This is the reason why psuedoscholars sometimes quote the Fathers out of context to allegedly "prove" that they supported SS. In fact, we are perfectly happy to use Scripture to establish doctrine and settle disputes. But once the doctrine is defined and the dispute settled, that process and its canonical documentation become part of Tradition. This is why some Protestants get confused and bandy about the false notion of "Sola Ecclesia."

We Catholics submit to Scripture as our PRIMARY source for doctrine (Prima Scriptura) but not as our only source. And we certainly do not submit to the man-made systems and merely human interpretations of every individual. St. Peter warned us about this in 1Pet 1:15.

The reason why SS fails miserably is that no document can establish its own authority. External authority must always establish it. Even the Protestants when they claim that the canon "just was" are basically arguing from TRADITION and thus violating their SS thesis.

2 Tim. 3:16 - this verse says that Scripture is "profitable" for every good work, but not exclusive. The word "profitable" is "ophelimos" in Greek. "Ophelimos" only means useful, which underscores that Scripture is not mandatory or exclusive.
Protestants unbiblically argue that profitable means exclusive.

2 Tim. 3:16 - further, the verse "all Scripture" uses the words "pasa graphe" which actually means every (not all) Scripture. This means every passage of Scripture is useful. Thus, the erroneous Protestant reading of "pasa graphe" would mean every single passage of Scripture is exclusive. This would mean Christians could not only use "sola Matthew," or "sola Mark," but could rely on one single verse from a Gospel as the exclusive authority of God's word. This, of course, is not true and even Protestants would agree. Also, "pasa graphe" cannot mean "all of Scripture" because there was no New Testament canon to which Paul could have been referring, unless Protestants argue that the New Testament is not being included by Paul.

2 Tim. 3:17 - Paul's reference to the "man of God" who may be complete refers to a clergyman, not a layman. It is an instruction to a bishop of the Church. So, although Protestants use it to prove their case, the passage is not even relevant to most of the faithful.

2 Tim. 3:17 - further, Paul's use of the word "complete" for every good work is "artios" which simply means the clergy is "suitable" or "fit." Also, artios does not describe the Scriptures, it describes the clergyman. So, Protestants cannot use this verse to argue the Scriptures are complete.

James 1:4 - steadfastness also makes a man "perfect (teleioi) and complete (holoklepoi), lacking nothing." This verse is important because "teleioi"and "holoklepoi" are much stronger words than "artios," but Protestants do not argue that steadfastness is all one needs to be a Christian

Rapunzel is a character in Grimm's fairy tales, and Grimm or anything else may be inspiring to some, it does not mean it is inspired by God.

2006-06-07 14:44:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Okay, you know better that this. Rapunzel is a book, a story, not Scripture. Use a dictionary, look up Scripture. Or try this link, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scripture. Nowhere is Rapunzel referred to as Scripture.

Hope next time you try harder. The first time it was funny, now its merely redundant.

2006-06-07 14:25:40 · answer #4 · answered by sweetie_baby 6 · 0 0

Perhaps you should stop reading if you are ignorant enough to take everything you read so literal. The bible is a guide, not THE word of God, inspired by God and written by God are two different things. If you believe this so much, I would hate to see how horrible it would be if you got hold of a tv... Please do not believe everything you read is black and white, there are shades of gray in this world!!!!

2006-06-07 14:27:07 · answer #5 · answered by hannahonelove 4 · 0 0

and god is the antichrist because worship god not Jesus. Jesus is in hell because he takes worship away from god who is the LORD who bible says is to be praised alone.

god is the sum of his parts thus god=7154=17=8=h thus it was said god is in heaven. so draw a body for the h and n in heaven and see its a funeral. the h is god and n is his grandfather with one arm. and god is burying his father. this is a true story.

the only way for this Lamb to be ressurected is to not really have been SLAIN or DIED so those words have come to mean something else to you but in reality they are what they say.

I read bible code also and squish these letters together
Larrib and what do they spell?

Check Rev.17.14
and how does a Lamb who was SLAIN or DIED rise up?
SL A I IV as in SiL A I IV (seal a I IIII cut)
DIED as in to DI (add a DI)
thus it means something different then what you were taught.

Thus a Larri with arm cuts that appear as"IIII I ."

and that answers Rev.19.12 as the Name written is IIII I . and eventually that was why god=DIO.

and as LORD OF LORDS AND KING OF KINGS he is living in CANADA thus its true that the U.S.A. is one nation under god.

and why is he also KING of ANGELS?
Abaddon= A b add on not a bad don.
and b=a DI stitched together.

but they rebel against HIM because its too unbelievable that long dead Jesus saw Me in the future.

I II III IIII....
a b c d....

coded to honour god the emperor.

why bcause EMPEROR is the sum of his parts thus add him up till he is represented by one number. 513165181518=45=9 thus coded into numbers EMPEROR=9 so numbers coded to honour god the emperor means

I II III IIII = A EMPEROR thus II III IIII is 9 as the EMPEROR so they describe the emperor as both his wrists. they one on the left shows a I III I pattern and the right is clear.

read the word EMPEROR with understanding the R has a hidden i written on top of it.

one theory of BIBLE and EMPEROR.

As coded to honour god.

and prove of god over time is Ceasar's calendar. search for the h and see a description of god who is h. its the same forward or reverse.

and why does don=6 and loser=6 because bible states all praise reserved for the LORD.

and WINNER=b
and b=a DI stitched together.

and that man is Me. one soul apeice because bible explains each living thing has a soul.

so to answer your question for Me heaven was a time and place where he a V (5 years old) and burying his father in winnipeg's brookside cemetary. and george really did have only I arm.

Source(s):

BIBLE and DIO as IIII I .

2006-06-07 14:26:08 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He is talking about the Bible. I guess you have nothing else to do but find excuses to make fun of these things. Get a life.

2006-06-07 14:26:05 · answer #7 · answered by AnGeL 4 · 0 0

Scripture as in what we have in the Bible - what is considered canonical (and has been since Paul's days, pretty much).

2006-06-07 14:23:50 · answer #8 · answered by Soga 4 · 0 0

Get a brain.

Get a life.

Get lost.

2006-06-07 14:30:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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