social studies
2006-06-06 14:02:46 · 8 answers · asked by music==money$$$$$$$$ 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Civic Participation
The north had more rivers that were suitable for generating power. Additionally, the ground in the south was far more profitable for farming than for mining.
Vast northern coal and iron mines interconnected through expansive and inexpensive water ways ....
Make sense ? In the south, because of the rich soil and longer growing season, it was simply more profitable to put plants in the ground rather than on top of them -- sort of a pun there
;-)
2006-06-06 14:07:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
A variety of reasons. As stated, most of the major industry in the US was based in the north, while the south and west were largely agricultural.
The reasons the north was industrial:
1. Immigration patterns: immigrants landed at New York and settled in the north because of family or economics
2. Resources: plants in the 1800s were driven by coal, and most of the coal was mined in Pennsylvania and West Virginia.
3. Transit: The rail infra-structure of the north was much more highly developed than the south.
2006-06-06 22:31:31 · answer #2 · answered by parrotjohn2001 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The north's economy is more industrial based, therefore the industrial revolution had a HUGE impact, as it completely changed production. The south and west were mainly agriculture based, so while their machinery may have gotten better, they still stuck to farming and mining. These products were then shipped to the north for manufacturing.
2006-06-06 21:06:48 · answer #3 · answered by livemannsf 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because people in the North actually understood the concept of machinery IE: the wheel, more readily than the folks in the south who would still be using horses and slaves today.
No really, what the other people said would be correct.
2006-06-07 00:11:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the north was an industrial area while the south was farm land and the west was mostly unpopulated
2006-06-06 21:07:40 · answer #5 · answered by joegossum 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Also there was a much greater population in the cities in the north, there wasn't any such thing as commuters,so they had a larger pool of workers to draw from
2006-06-06 21:25:12 · answer #6 · answered by booboo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the north was industrial - the south and west were agricultural
2006-06-06 21:05:48 · answer #7 · answered by Shopaholic Chick 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You sure have a lot of homework to do!!!
2006-06-07 00:29:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋