Help with object pronouns in Spanish?

Question

Which is correct if I'm telling someone I don't know (Ud.) to call another woman: "Hay que llamarle manana" or "Hay que llamarla manana"? And please say where your Spanish is from. Thank you!
(I have heard it both ways...)

Answer 1

Both ways are correct, but the second one is better, because it lets the other person know that you want to call a woman --otherwise you would have to say "Hay que llamarle mañana a la señora"--.

My Spanish is from Mexico, where it is more common to say "Hay que hablarle mañana (a la señora)"

Answer 2

The correct form is "Hay que llamarla mañana". (Notice, by the way, the ~ on top of the ñ.

You probably know that there are Direct Objects and Indirect Objects. D.O. (in English and most languages, but not always in Spanish) come after the verb without a preposition. In English, Indirect Objects usually (but not always) take the preposition "to", or "for".

For example, if you say: "I gave a present to the boy.", "a present" is D.O. and "to the boy" is I.O.

Sometimes a complement can be D.O in a language and I.O in another: "Listen to the music" > "Escucha la música". But that's not something that happens too often.

Now, if you say "We have to call you tomorrow", you'll see that "call" takes a D.O. in English. And in Spanish, too.

And, when you replace a D.O. for the corresponding pronoun, that pronoun in Spanish (for the formal "you") is lo (masc.) or la (fem.), whereas "le" (m. or f.) is the I.O. pronoun.

However, it sometimes happens in Spain that if the D.O. is a MAN (not a woman) they will sometimes replace it with "le". That's called leísmo, and you shouldn't imitate that.

BTW, I'm from Argentina.

N.B: "hablar" takes an I.O., so it is correct to say "Hay que hablarle a la señora". But "llamar" takes a D.O., so you say "Hay que llamarla a la señora".

Answer 3

Hay que llamarla mañana. Guatemala Central America. (and yes you can say it either way... just that where I live it's more common to say LLAMARLA)

Answer 4

I am from Colombia, but i have a lot of Central American friends, they somotimes use "llamarle", but the correct way is "llamarla".

Answer 5

I have been taking Spanish class for three years, and I would think it is llamarle or le llama. [Spain] I hope this helps.