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Eros is Sexual Love.
Philia is platonic love.

Under the definition of Philia doesn’t that mean that Pedophilia SHOULD mean “Healthy, Platonic Love” & not “Unhealthy, Sexual Love”?

Doesn’t that mean that words like Pedophilia SHOULD be Pedoeros?

2007-12-31 12:42:04 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

No, wait... I don't think you understand what I mean...

Pedo = Child

Philia = Platonic Love

Phobia = Fear

Homo = The Same

pediatrician means:
Pedi = Child
Atrician = Doctor

I'm asking about the difference in definition between:

Pedophilia
and
Pedoeros

2007-12-31 13:09:58 · update #1

WOW... I'm not saying that people should go out and commit pedophilia... I'm just questioning the language...

I could have used Necrophilia just as eaisly as a discription of the issue I'm trying to solve... And I wouldn't be encoruaging sex with dead people either...

Do the answers need to be mainly @ssholes because I said the word Pedophilia or is it just that a lot of people on Yahoo! answers are pricks?

2007-12-31 16:54:47 · update #2

4 answers

You are starting with a false assumption about the meaning of the Greek word "philia". However Plato may have used the term in philosophical discussions, it was, in Greek simply the "everyday" word for "love". It covered a broad range, much as our English word "love" does -- and could be used for both good and bad, healthy and unhealthy types of affection/desire.

Again, it is incorrect to say that PHILIA "MEANS 'healthy, Platonic love". So words like pedophilia and necrophilia do not in any way imply that the "love" referred to is good or proper.

2008-01-01 02:38:45 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0 0

What do you mean 'should be'? The current meaning of any word is all that matters, indeed all that can matter. Etymology is of academic interest but no more. Nobody is going to change it now, are they?

If you think of φιλία as meaning 'liking for' or 'propensity towards', it isn't that much of a stretch. Modern Greek ομοφυλοφιλία (same-sex-liking) for homosexuality has nothing to do with platonic love, nor does φιλελεύθερος (liking-freedom) 'liberal'.

LATER

Which answer says, or even hints, that anyone should go out and commit paedophilia? I'm talking purely about language and etymology because you asked a question in 'words and wordplay' about language and etymology. How does this merit my or anyone else's being called prick or an @sshole? In future you'll just have to make it clearer what you want to know, because now I haven't a clue.

AND LATER STILL

This didn't occur to me yesterday. The modern words deriving from Eros are 'paederast' and 'paederasty', both from εραστής (erastis) meaning 'lover' 'one who desires'. For some reason the term 'pedophile' seems to have become mre common than 'pederast'. I don't know why - used more by media, maybe.

Ok, now tell me what else I've said wrong.

2007-12-31 14:10:44 · answer #2 · answered by vilgessuola 6 · 0 1

Quite frankly, m'dear. I'd rather be in Philadelphia than sort that one out.

2007-12-31 13:19:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Surely the root is the same as that of pediatrician and pedagogy - in other words dealing with "paid", the Greek for children. I agree that "Love(r) of children" is hardly consistent with our idea of a pedophile. But then "homophobia" - literally fear of homosexuals - is inappropriate too. Disgust and disapproval maybe; but "fear?" Hardly!

Edit - I cannot discuss the definition of a word that, notwithstanding your preference, does not exist - at least in my dictionary. You asked if the word presently in vogue is wrong. I saw your point and indicated another seeming misnomer. I would need to be a Greek scholar to comment authoritatively on either example, and I am not. Perhaps one will come along for you. I hope so.

2007-12-31 12:59:25 · answer #4 · answered by picador 7 · 0 1