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prove the identity sin^20/1-cos0=sec 0+1/sec 0

2007-12-30 11:32:16 · 6 answers · asked by unique1995 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

To prove:-
sin ² θ / (1 - cos θ ) = (secθ + 1) / sec θ

LHS
( 1 - cos ² θ ) / (1 - cos θ )
( 1 - cos θ )(1 + cos θ ) / ( 1 - cos θ )
1 + cos θ

RHS
cos θ (1 / cos θ + 1)
1 + cos θ

LHS = RHS

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2007-12-30 21:07:29 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 1 2

I am guessing that those 0 you have there are actually the Greek letter theta, and you left out some CRITICAL parentheses

lets just use x instead
sin^2 x/(1-cosx)=(sec x +1)/sec x

ok lets leave the right side alone and work with the left
1-cos^2 x/(1-cosx)= sub sin^2 x = 1-cos^2 x
(1+cos x) (1-cosx)/1-cos x= factor the numerator
1+cos x= cancel 1-cos
cos(1/cos+1)= factor out cos
(1/sec x)(sec x+1) sub sec for 1/cos
(secx+1)/sec x rearrange

2007-12-30 11:45:52 · answer #2 · answered by saejin 4 · 0 1

sin^2 0 = 1 - cos^2 0; factor this and cancel out the bottom

Then replace the resulting cos 0 with 1/sec 0 and simplify

2007-12-30 11:36:40 · answer #3 · answered by hayharbr 7 · 2 1

in this situation, i've got self belief you are going to be able to desire to apply the Pythagorean, Reciprocal, and Quotient Identities...as far as a textbook is in contact. very nearly, right here - take the two area of the id at a time: Sin^2(x) Sec^2(x) may be simplified to Tan^2 (x) as a results of fact secant is one million/cosine, for this reason you get Sin^2(x) / Cos^2(x). so that's now Tan^2(x) = sec^2(x) -one million. in accordance to the Pythag id, one million+tan^2(x) = Sec^2(x). it is definitely changed by utilizing subtracting 'one million' from the two factors. This components illustrates the top of the evidence, ending with: tan^2(x) = tan^2(x)

2016-10-10 16:14:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

we'll do theta = x

(secx + 1) / secx
= ( (1÷cosx) + 1 ) / (1÷cosx)
= (1 + cosx)(cosx) / cosx
= 1 + cosx

On the other hand,

sin^2(x) / (1 - cosx)
= ( 1 - cos^2(x) ) / (1 - cosx)
= (1 + cosx)(1 - cosx) / (1 - cosx)
= 1 + cos x

So, as we can see both results are the same. OK

2007-12-30 11:47:03 · answer #5 · answered by fraukka 3 · 0 1

I assume you mean
sin²θ/(1-cosθ) = (secθ + 1)/secθ

LHS
= sin²θ/(1-cosθ)
= (1-cos²θ) / (1-cosθ)
= (1+cosθ)(1-cosθ) / (1-cosθ)
= 1 + cosθ
= 1 + 1/secθ
= (secθ+1)/secθ
= RHS

2007-12-30 11:38:04 · answer #6 · answered by gudspeling 7 · 2 1

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