What do you think?
2007-12-30 10:05:58 · 12 answers · asked by pikester666 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Let us approach this logically, which would take the following form.
If one can see, then one can believe.
Blind people cannot see.
Therefore, blind people cannot believe.
In logical form, it would be:
A --> B
--A
Therefore, --B
This argument is structurally invalid and commits the fallacy of "denying the antecedent." As such, it is not a logically valid argument.
2007-12-30 10:13:38 · answer #1 · answered by Think 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look at any Greek tale. The blind man sees best, all fortune tellers and prophets were blind, and so were most bards. In literature blind people cannot see the material world, are shut of from the sensory, and therefore may embrace logic and achieve wisdom. Since wisdom is questioning fact to discover the truth, then blind people must believe in themselves and their answers.
2007-12-30 18:13:02 · answer #2 · answered by pcolind 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is a Categorically incorrect to use a statement such as that with participants who lack the general criteria to undergo such a hypothesis. Nonetheless, seeing is not believing, it is only a further means of confirming the proposition and discovery at hand. No one can ever be 100% certain of anything, much less believing. Believing is of subjective value, and so just because a blind person can never see, don't forget he/she has 4 other senses.
2007-12-30 18:11:56 · answer #3 · answered by elguapo_marco_2008@sbcglobal.net 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they do and the best example is deaf-blind Helen Keller.
The best and most beautiful things in the world cannot be seen or even touched. They must be felt within the heart.
-- Helen Keller
2007-12-30 18:14:10 · answer #4 · answered by I love you too! 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The blind man sees darkness so is he really blind?
2007-12-30 18:29:42 · answer #5 · answered by Premaholic 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They don't believe the things that you must see to believe.
2007-12-30 18:16:12 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it would only be appropriate to wait for a blind person to respond to your qestion.
2007-12-30 18:11:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes most are kind hearted,and gentle,and seeing is not believing .believing is believing.that was a foolish question but a smart tricky one
2007-12-30 18:09:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Seeing is not believing. Believing is seeing. If you believe in something ,that is what you see.The world around will be as you believe it to be.you see what you believe.If you are beautiful inside ,you see beauty in everything.I do not see god..but i believe in god and since i believe in god ,i see his miracle in everything!!
2007-12-30 18:23:39 · answer #9 · answered by ocean_drop 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
seeing is still believing.
even tho we can see, we cannot see everything because
its a big world.
there4, we believe what we want to believe from
what others have seen...sight through others.
2007-12-30 18:17:14 · answer #10 · answered by youngman eeksdeeks 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋