The ^ indicates "to the power of".
2007-12-30 07:01:50 · 8 answers · asked by Little Dreams 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Hi,
No, you can't do that because x^2 means x times x. Therefore, we could factor out a common factor of x from the given expression to get:
x ( x - 1 ) <==== FINAL ANSWER
I hope that helps you out! Please let me know if you have any other questions!
Sincerely,
Andrew
2007-12-30 07:11:43 · answer #1 · answered by The VC 06 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Only if x = 0
2007-12-30 15:07:16 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
No
x is any number.
Let x = 5
5² - 5 = 20 â 5
2008-01-02 14:28:15 · answer #3 · answered by Como 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No it doesn't, x^2 - x also equals x(x-1) which does not equal x.
2007-12-30 15:11:19 · answer #4 · answered by NBL 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Factor them.
x^2-x
=x(x-1)
The answer is not x because in the x^2, you are multiplying x by itself, not by 2.
2007-12-30 15:05:46 · answer #5 · answered by curiosium 1 · 0⤊ 3⤋
No.
x^2 - x = x (x - 1)
2007-12-30 15:04:39 · answer #6 · answered by laurahal42 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋
x^2 = squareroot(x) or x^(1/2)
2007-12-30 15:06:06 · answer #7 · answered by Karen H 1 · 0⤊ 4⤋
no, you can't consider x squared and x to be the same type of variable.
2007-12-30 15:05:55 · answer #8 · answered by Adeel M 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋