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4 1/5 x ¾ x 6 = ?

and please explain how you got this answer... out of all the math you could possobly do, this is about the only think that always stumps me. HELP!!

2007-12-29 11:13:48 · 19 answers · asked by Beth F 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

19 answers

Hi,

Okay, to begin you need to change all of the given numbers into fractions. Therefore, 4 and 1 / 5 would be changed to: 21 / 5. We see that 3 / 4 is already a fraction and 6 can be expressed as 6 / 1. Therefore, we get the following:

[ 21 / 5 ] [ 3 / 4 ] [ 6 / 1 ] =

At this point, you can multiply straight through the numerators and multiply straight through the denominators to get:

630 / 20

As you can tell at this point, there's a common factor of 10 in both the numerator and denominator which can be cancelled out to get:

63 / 2

Now, at this point, we can't simplify the fraction any further because 63 is an odd number which we can't divide in 2.

Therefore we get:

FINAL ANSWER: 63 / 2

I hope that helps you out! Please let me know if you have any other questions!

Sincerely,

Andrew

2007-12-29 12:27:05 · answer #1 · answered by The VC 06 7 · 0 1

4 1/5 x 3/4 x 6 =

1. Change the mixed number (4 1/5) into an improper fraction
4 1/5 = 21/5

2. Rewrite the problem
21/5 x 3/4 x 6 =

3. Change the whole number (6) into an improper fraction
6 = 6/1

4. Rewrite the problem
21/5 x 3/4 x 6/1 =

5. Multiply across the numerators and denominators
Numerators = 21 x 3 x 6 = 378
Denominators = 5 x 4 x 1 = 20
Total = 378/20

6. Change the improper fraction back into a mixed number
378/20 = 18 18/20 = 18 9/10

7. 4 1/5 x 3/4 x 6 = 18 9/10

2007-12-29 21:06:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

O.K. First you have to change 4 1/5 to an improper fraction.
Multiply 5x4 and add 1, and keep the denominator which is 5. So, you have 5x4+1= 21/5. Now multiply 21/5 by 3/4 and 6. 6 as a fraction is 6/1. When you do that, you have 378/20 Simplifying you get 18 9/10 or as an improper fraction- 189/10

:) Hope I helped!

p.s- Remember that when multiplying your denominators DON'T have to be the same, and when dividing fractions change the division sign to multiplication and flip the second number. For example- 3/4 (divided by) 1/2 would be 3/4 (times) 2/1 which gives you 1 1/2

2007-12-29 19:23:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

OK here we go:
first multiply 5*4 and add 1 that puts the first fraction in the same format as the second fraction.
then you have 21/5 * 3/4 (multiply 21*4 and 3*5) and you get 15/84.
multiply 15/84*6/1 this gives you 90/84.
then divide 90/84 and you get 1 6/84
divide 2 into 6 and 2 into 84 to reduce the fraction and this gives you 3/42 and then divide 3 into 3 and 42 and it will leave you with 1/14 and the final answer is
1 1/14

2007-12-29 19:30:45 · answer #4 · answered by xcellant 3 · 0 1

The answer is 189/10 or 18.9.

Step 1: Write it out: 4 1/5 * 3/4 * 6
Step 2: convert 4 1/5 into improper fraction: (4*5+1)/5 = 21/5.

(If you don't know what improper fraction is, then go to this website: http://www.mathsisfun.com/improper-fractions.html)

Step 3: So, 21/5 * 3/4 * 6. Cancel the denominator 4 with the 6 by 2, so it's 21/5 * 3/2 * 3.

Step 4: Multiply numerator straight: 21*3*3. Then the denominator straight: 5*2

Then it's 189/10.

Hope this helps.

2007-12-29 19:26:35 · answer #5 · answered by ES 4 · 0 1

First you have change everything into a fraction.
4 1/5 becomes 21/5
6 becomes 6/1
Then you just multiply across
[numerators, top numbers] 21x3x6=378
[denominators, bottom numbers] 5x4x1=20

in the end you get 378/20
then you simplify and come out with 18 18/20
I'm pretty sure this is how you do it, but it's been a while since I've had to do that for a grade.

2007-12-29 19:26:12 · answer #6 · answered by toribob 2 · 0 1

First, convert 4 and one fifth. 4 equals 20 fifths because 20 divided by five is 4. Therefore, 4 and one fifth is 21/5. Then, multiply by multiplying all the numerators and all of the denominators, keeping in mind that 6=6/1. 21 X 3 X 6 = 378. 5X4=20. Therefore, your answer is 378/20 or 18.9 or 189/10.

2007-12-29 19:17:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

okay you have to make it into an improper fraction which for 4 1/5 would be 21/5
then multiply by 3/4
that would be...63/20
then multiply by 6/1 and
you get...388/6.
THEN, you have to reduce by dividing 6 into 388 =
64 4/6 or 64 2/3

The answer is 64 2/3



(Rate this as the best answer please)

2007-12-29 19:21:33 · answer #8 · answered by Remain Nameless 3 · 0 1

make 4 1/5 a improper fraction..so 21/5....times that by 3/4...(times the denominator by the numerator) 63/20 then times that by 6/1...378/20, then simplify it = 18 9/20!

2007-12-29 19:20:00 · answer #9 · answered by k3kelly 3 · 0 1

21/5 * 3/4 * 6/1= 378/20= 18 9/10=189/10

2007-12-29 19:22:05 · answer #10 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 1

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