2007-12-29 01:51:50 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Hi,
Wow, this is a very good question. Let me put this advice out there, infinity is not a number. It's not a finite number like -10, 5 or 5,000. We will NEVER reach the finite reaches of infinity. With that being said, infinity can represent any big number that we encounter as our number line gets bigger and bigger. Think for a moment, about all of the "big" numbers you would think of. If we multiplied them by 0, we always would get 0 back. Therefore, it doesn't matter what number you provide, we will always get 0.
HOWEVER, MAKE THIS NOTE: INFINITY IS NOT A NUMBER!!!! Therefore, we can't simply take infinity [an abstract concept] and multiply it by 0.
Therefore, we say N / A OR DNE [does not exist]. One of my professors a year ago said that in mathematics, if something is vague or unclear, it's probably DNE because we can't justify WHAT EXACTLY infinity is to another person.
FINAL ANSWER: DNE
I hope that helps you out! Please let me know if you have any other questions!
Sincerely,
Andrew
2007-12-29 02:34:00 · answer #1 · answered by The VC 06 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
no, because it is undefined and you cannot draw a general conclusion from an undefined expression...to follow your logic...
2/0 is also infinite, does it then mean that 0*infinity =2?
if so, you could have any 0 *infinity=any number, and that clearly makes no sense. The reason why it makes no sense is that 1/0 is undefined and cannot be used as the basis for deriving new expressions.
2007-12-29 03:35:01 · answer #2 · answered by kuiperbelt2003 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If 1/0 = infinity ,0*infinity =1 that is correct.
since anything to the power of zero is always one TQ
2007-12-29 14:44:00 · answer #3 · answered by thalathamarai 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unfortunately, 1/0 does not equal infinity. It doesn't equal anything - it's just undefined. Although it may appear that as 1 is divided by smaller and smaller numbers, it must eventually reach infinity, infinity isn't a real number (that's real in the mathematical sense).
There are various complicated ways of dealing with this, but they normally lead to other strange things elsewhere. Therefore, as a general rule, it is just left alone...
2007-12-29 02:00:03 · answer #4 · answered by Richard Hammings 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Suppose 1/0, the reciprocal of 0, existed. Let's call it X.
The 0*X = 1, by the definition of reciprocal. But also 0*X = 0, because 0*ANYTHING = 0.
That contradiction shows why 1/0 doesn't exist.
Saying 1/0 = infinity is sloppy shorthand, that usually causes more problems than it's worth.
2007-12-29 03:01:17 · answer #5 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
0 * infinity = 0;
2007-12-29 05:05:05 · answer #6 · answered by jai_likith 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No..
0*Infinity = Infinity itself.
2007-12-29 01:57:04 · answer #7 · answered by Chain Gang Soldier 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
1/0 is an indeterminable quantity ,may be infinity as well ,but 0*infinity will be zero . As zero multiplied by any number gives zero only.
Hence, your hypothesis is absolutely wrong.
2007-12-29 18:29:51 · answer #8 · answered by sb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0*infinity is undefined, consider infinity*0= (1/0)*0=1 is not correct, Infinity is not a defined quantity, we cannot say infinity is this or that it is undefinable maximum value.
2007-12-29 02:03:09 · answer #9 · answered by The Ranger 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Infinity is NOT a number in mathematics,
Division by zero is forbidden.ie it is not defined..
There is no number which is equal to infinity.
It is only a concept.
So it is not correct to use the eqality sign for 1/0.
2007-12-29 15:17:19 · answer #10 · answered by bhatta 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋