sin^2(355pi/113)+cos^2(355pi/113)
I can't figure out where to go from here, the answer needs to be very precise... and I can't figure out how to evaluate it.
2007-12-28 09:27:12 · 9 answers · asked by em.four 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1
sin^2 (blah) + cos^2 (blah) = 1 always
2007-12-28 09:30:01 · answer #1 · answered by Dr D 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1
2007-12-28 09:33:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey there!
Simple. The answer is 1. Why?
The Pythagorean Identity states that:
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1, regardless the value of x.
Since 355pi/113=355pi/113, then we can apply the formula.
Answer: 1
Hope it helps!
2007-12-28 09:31:01 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is very easy.
It is based on the identity,
sin^2 θ + cos^2 θ = 1, where θ ∈ R
Plugging θ = 355pi/113
sin^2(355pi/113)+cos^2(355pi/113) = 1.
2007-12-28 09:32:36 · answer #4 · answered by Madhukar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin^2(355pi/113)+cos^2(355pi/113) =1
2007-12-28 09:31:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin(x)^2+cos(x)^2 = 1
x can be: 1, 53.2344, 355pi/113, anything
See this:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagorean_trigonometric_identity
2007-12-28 09:39:39 · answer #6 · answered by Mike 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin^2 a + cos^2 a = 1
so the ans is 1
2007-12-28 09:30:32 · answer #7 · answered by norman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
355/113 = pi !
so its , sin^2(anyvariable) + cos^2(anyvariable) = 1
2007-12-28 09:48:59 · answer #8 · answered by Nur S 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1
sin^2 X+cos^2 X
is always equal to 1
2007-12-28 10:25:04 · answer #9 · answered by z 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋