2007-12-28 07:30:14 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No.
The smallest prime number is 2.
A prime number can be divided by itself and 1 only.
The first few prime numbers are :-
2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 11 , 13 , 17 , 19 , 23 , 29--------
2007-12-28 09:52:40 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
1 is not considered a prime number, so that every positive integer may be uniquely factored into a product of primes. If 1 where prime than this wouldn't be the case, since 1·1 = 1. For example, we can factor 60 as
60 = 2·2·3·5
but also as
60 = 1·2·2·3·5 =1·1·2·2·3·5 = 1·1·1·2·2·3·5 = 1·1·1·1·2·2·3·5 = ... etc.
If 1 were considered a prime then these would all be different
prime factorizations of 60.
So even though 1 is divisible only by itself and 1, it is not called a prime number (Edit: anymore. Mathematicians used to consider it a prime number; see the wikipedia link below).
2007-12-28 15:44:31 · answer #2 · answered by a²+b²=c² 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, the first person is correct. 1 is not a prime number. Referencing the first incorrect response 1 is not "considered" a prime number because it is not one. The laws of mathematics are not to be arbitrarily followed, they are what they are. And they state that 1 is not a prime number.
2007-12-28 15:42:38 · answer #3 · answered by gzacar001 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. The definition of a prime number: If a number has exactly two different positive integer factors then it is prime.
For instance 2 is prime because it has factors of 1 and 2.
13 is prime because it has factors of 1 and 13.
1 is NOT prime because it only had one factor, 1.
2007-12-28 15:42:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. A prime # is a number evenly divisable only by 1 and itself, 1 fits that rule and is a prime #.
2007-12-28 15:38:56 · answer #5 · answered by kgsgolf 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. 2 is considered the smallest prime number.
2007-12-28 15:33:34 · answer #6 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
no the number 1 is not considered prime or composite.
2007-12-28 17:09:36 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, prime numbers are divisible by 1 and itself, so when 1 is itself, then it has only one distinct divisor. As one person said earlier, it needs 2.
2007-12-28 15:54:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The definition of a prime number is that its only factors are one and itself, AND that it is greater than (but not equal to) one.
2007-12-28 15:46:14 · answer #9 · answered by dinchan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah but its not "considered" a prime number
2007-12-28 15:38:05 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋