Is the digital transition legal?

Question

The government has mandated that all TV must be digital by 2009. What enumerated power of the Constitution gives them the right to dictate what kind of technology we use, or to legislate any technology out of existence? Think of all the poor people who still use analog TV; who will be forced to buy expensive digital TV (none of which are made in the US) or do without. I think this is one more political favor to Chinese donors, at the expense of the American people. It is also *much* easier to hack or jam digital sources, making it easier to control mass communications. What do you think?

Engineer50 - since you're too cowardly to allow email I'll have to address you here. I have digital TV already, so this doesn't affect me. And 'buy a converter box' still means you're forcing people to buy something - contrary to the principle of a free market. The issue is whether the government has the power to dictate what technology people may or may not use; or to *force* people to buy billions of dollars in new products. The 'Commerce Clause' has been bent and stretched past all reason - most of such applications being unconstitutional.

Answer 1

I believe the "Commerce" clause is the one that gives Congress authority to regulate interstate communication. Which includes digital signals vs. analog signals.

I think you are fighting a tidal wave that will swamp you if you don't get out of its way. Digital cable or digital satellite are the ways to go for the future. Don't forget that analog signals, because of their increased bandwidth requirements, "hog" the radio frequency spectrum. The limited availability of usable frequency ranges was stifling commerce in the form of cellular and other communications methods that are based on open-air transmissions. Hence the Commerce clause was a natural as far as justification goes.

Answer 2

You are overreacting. Analog TVs can still be used with a simple converter box. Get a grip.