Some people argue that the first naturalization laws stated that only "free white persons" could apply for citizenship, and it was white males that were "free".
Imagine if the US had been settled by Chinese or Arab cultures and immigration laws were designed to preserve these cultures.
Is it right that the nation remain majority white and other darker immigrant populations be controlled?
2007-12-26 18:03:08 · 8 answers · asked by ToYou,Too! 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The founding fathers also recognized that culture and society would change over time - which is why they included, in the Constitution, a mechanism for amending it.
EDIT - "Mad scientist" is wrong in her interpretation of what's meant by "Framers Intent".
"Framers Intent" is a legal theory for interpreting a *currently valid* law, which holds that the right way to decide what a law means is to look at what the people who framed it *meant* it to mean.
Richard
2007-12-26 18:07:55 · answer #1 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1st error - our Founder believe that ALL men were created equal. Interestingly very few actually owned any slaves. So when they said "all" they really meant all.
2nd error - naturalization is preferential to whites, its not its a bloated example of democrat meddling.
3rd error - Is it right for some people to point fingers at a segment of the population, based on skin color, and blame them for everything? Seems to be anyone of any ethnicity can be anything they want... from Actor to Xenobiologist and more but only here in the US.
Edit - Some of the Founders were rich... most lost everything, some of the remaining lost their lives. Only a couple remained rich.
2007-12-26 18:20:13 · answer #2 · answered by Archer Christifori 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
and those alleged same people even wnet as far under the civil rights Acts to spell it out clearly, that all blacks can have the same rights as White American Citizens""kinda ironic" though since it was an act that can be voided, changed, withheld or denied at anytime by congress, where the Constitution did not..The framers did some amazing things though, "all citizens" in the "several states" this does not disclude blacks or any other groups of origin or color. But many like to mislead the populace into beleiving that which is not.
2007-12-26 20:03:41 · answer #3 · answered by leon from Alaska 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The founding fathers were all rich, white, and land owners. Many of them were slave owners as well. But yeah, the constitution can be amended and it has, so white people can't ban others from voting or being citizens because it's hardly acceptable. But, there is still some prejudice and racism that's subtle and even overt. There's still a long way to go.
2007-12-26 18:14:15 · answer #4 · answered by joe s 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Only if we start by rounding up all of the white women and sending them to concentration camps to be "resettled" first...
(I hope you see the sarcasm here).
2007-12-26 18:06:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, not everything that our Founding Fathers believed in is acceptable by today's standards.
2007-12-26 18:06:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
are you trying to be funny? Will things change so that why our FOUNDING fathers created something called AMENDMENTS. Get you *** back to U.S. history and shut your racist mouth.
2007-12-26 18:08:29 · answer #7 · answered by Roger Z 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you believe in "Framers Intent" then yes, only white men who have property can vote.
BTW, Framers Intent is what conservative justices believe.
2007-12-26 18:09:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋