Rape question?

Question

Can a man rape his wife? Why or why not? even better argue for both sides.

Answer 1

If you have sex with someone against their will, that's rape. It doesn't matter if they're your wife, daughter or a stranger. Rape is rape. Spousal rape is just extremely hard to prove because the it would be hard to distinguish the signs of rape from frequent consensual sex.

Answer 2

Of course in reality anything against the Will is at least a wrong. The legal obstacle of its question as a crime may be answered certainly as to its wrongness as sexual conduct, i.e.civil wrong.

http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/works/sp/osabstra.htm

Encyclopaedia of the Philosophical Sciences
Part III: The Philosophy of Spirit
SECTION TWO: OBJECTIVE SPIRIT

A. LAW
(a) PROPERTY
(b) CONTRACT
(c) RIGHT versus WRONG



(c) RIGHT versus WRONG
§ 496

Law (right) considered as the realisation of liberty in externals, breaks up into a multiplicity of relations to this external sphere and to other persons (§§ 491, 493 ff.). In this way there are (1) several titles or grounds at law, of which (seeing that property both on the personal and the real side is exclusively individual) only one is the right, but which, because they face each other, each and all are invested with a show of right, against which the former is defined as the intrinsically right.

§ 497.

Now so long as (compared against this show) the one intrinsically right, still presumed identical with the several titles, is affirmed, willed, and recognised, the only diversity lies in this, that the special thing is subsumed under the one law or right by the particular will of these several persons. This is naive, non-malicious wrong. Such wrong in the several claimants is a simple negative judgement, expressing the civil suit. To settle it there is required a third judgement, which, as the judgement of the intrinsically right, is disinterested, and a power of giving the one right existence as against that semblance.

§ 498.

But (2) if the semblance of right as such is willed against the right intrinsically by the particular will, which thus becomes wicked, then the external recognition of right is separated from the right's true value; and while the former only is respected, the latter is violated. This gives the wrong of fraud — the infinite judgement as identical (§173) — where the nominal relation is retained, but the sterling value is let slip.

§ 499.

(3) Finally, the particular will sets itself in opposition to the intrinsic right by negating that right itself as well as its recognition or semblance. (Here there is a negatively infinite judgement (§ 173) in which there is denied the class as a whole, and not merely the particular mode — in this case the apparent recognition.) Thus the will is violently wicked, and commits a crime.

Answer 3

No spouse is entitled to withhold sexual relations from the other. If you do your giving a clear message to seek it out else where. Hey, God said it not me!

Your question is the product of the western civilization after pantie waist men gave into their (women's) equality in society.

Answer 4

Depend. He should respect her enough to stop if she is not in the mood for it but there are always exception. My friend marry this woman who refuse to have sex with him period, so he "rape" her. Later he found out she did it for his money only. I think in that case she deserve it.

Answer 5

Yes. It is as wrong to force one's wife as it is to force anyone else.

Answer 6

If they get marry aleardy. Then I don't think that will called rape.

Answer 7

Yes! however, rape is harder to prove in marriage.