Please don't give a ginormas answer I've just always been curious
2007-12-25 09:49:53 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The reason why they were neutral was simply that they did not see any advantage out of getting into it.
They were pressured by both sides to join their cause but saw that it was better to trade with the Nazi's (Iron Ore) and Allies rather than fight for one against the other. The Allies could not have prevented the Germans from conquering them had they joined their effort and joining Germany (which would more have been the case early on) meant they were at the mercy of Germany helping them.
They choose to let them fight it out and watch while all the belligerents in Europe ruined themselves.
2007-12-25 10:15:39 · answer #1 · answered by casimir2121 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The general "why" has been answered sufficiently here, but the reality is a bit more complex.
Sweden was, of course, officially neutral but actually actively aided Germany throughout the war -- due to historical reasons and the Swedish monarchy which I won't discuss at this time. Among the more egregious acts, Sweden allowed its national railways to transport Nazi troops, at night, to the battlefields in northern Norway, something many Norwegians still hold against Sweden to this day.
2007-12-27 22:27:52 · answer #2 · answered by Unrepentant Fenian Bastard 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here's the explanation for Sweden's neutrality direct from wikipedia.
"The Swedish non-allied policy was founded on the assumption that there were two opposing powers in the Baltic, Germany and the Soviet Union. As they have to guard against each other, they could only deploy minor forces against Sweden or other non-allied countries which made defence of a small country feasible. The Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact that was signed in the end of August 1939, upset this balance."
2007-12-25 12:33:11 · answer #3 · answered by jason h 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
After the outbreak of war between Germany and Poland, France and Britain in September 1939, Sweden declared itself a neutral country.
At the outbreak of the Finnish Winter War in November 1939 Sweden declared itself not neutral, but ”non-belligerent”. This allowed the country to send volunteers and weapons to Finland. Sweden and Finland also lay minefields in the Sea of Åland to deter Soviet submarines from entering the Gulf of Bothnia.
2007-12-25 10:05:40 · answer #4 · answered by frijolero 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
You probably would have been neutral too if you could have been. Nearly half of America wanted to be neutral. It also suited the Nazis to have some neutral countries to field intelligence operations through, to do banking (as with Switzerland) and for diplomatic purposes.
2007-12-25 09:56:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sweden has been a peaceful country in recent years, I just think they wanted to stay out of the conflict and mind their own business(as long as they could). However, they could have made side deals that benefited them thanks to their neutrality, but I mostly think they stepped aside out of innocence.
Switzerland stays neutral so it can make money banking for both sides. However, the fact that they make provisions to rapidly arm themselves in the even of an invasion tells me they aren't that innocent, and have a lot to lose if their banking system is compromised.
2007-12-25 15:35:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Most European Nations wanted to remain neutral for they were still recovering from the first World War and were scared out of their pants a second would happen and would do nearly anything to avoid it. This is what Hitler used to his advantage as he occupied the Rhineland and annexed Austria without any interference.
The Nations of Europe had enough from WWI and wanted no war at nearly all cost. had they stood up to him at stage one he would have backed down, he said so in historical documents that the german army was to withdraw if the allies attempted to stop them in the Rhineland and in Austria. So once he succeeded their he was ready for Poland and WWII in his eyes.
Hope that helps
2007-12-25 14:00:45 · answer #7 · answered by Legend Gates Shotokan Karate 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They weren't attacked by employing everybody. Thier ships weren't sunk. They 're neutrality grew to become into fantastically plenty respected by employing all events. The Nazis did no longer attempt to persecute their Jews (in certainty, i do no longer think of Sweden had many Jews). why no longer stay impartial?
2016-10-19 21:52:31 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They could make more money being neutral, serving both sides.
2007-12-25 10:20:15 · answer #9 · answered by biged 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the top contributors who answered you are right
2007-12-25 14:10:52 · answer #10 · answered by pao d historian 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋