Whether non-disjunction at the first or second meiotic division would have a higher probability of producing abnormal gametes
2007-12-24 16:14:15 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
If it occurred during Meiosis I only, all four resulting cells have an abnormal chromosome number. If during the second division only, 2 or 4 could be wrong, depending if it was just one cell or both where non-disjunction occurred:
..........1st Division........................2nd Division
............(>< ><).................................. (>< ><)
.......(>< ><) + (...)............................ (><) + (><)
..(><) + (><) + (...) + (...)........... (>) + (<) + (><) + (...)
OR................................................ (><) + (><) + (...) + (...)
Hope you can make out my attempt at ASCI drawings of cells.
2007-12-24 18:57:37 · answer #1 · answered by Dean M. 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Meiosis is a special type of nuclear division which segregates one copy of each homologous chromosome into each new "gamete". Mitosis maintains the cell's ...
www.emc.maricopa.edu/faculty/farabee/BIOBK/BioBookmeiosis.html - 23k - Cached - Similar pages
2007-12-25 07:24:43 · answer #2 · answered by garudaku 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
non-disjuction just means that the chromosomes or homologous pairs do not seperate properly, anyway, no matter after the first or the second meiosis, the number is always haploid, thus I guess they have same probablity.
2007-12-25 00:47:51 · answer #3 · answered by Parker B 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋