2007-12-24 02:11:54 · 3 answers · asked by Radman 3 in Social Science ➔ Economics
The number of woman in the workforce surged in the 1970's and coincided with the baby boomers entering the work force which significantly increased the supply of labor. This probably had the effect of lowering wages. This should have played it self out by the mid 80's and the increase in immigration has accounted to a larger fraction of additional workers in recent years. Also the share of income captured by the very rich has been steadily increasing over the last 20+ years due to changes in the economy and or government policy leaving a smaller share for wages. In other developed countries women have also entered the workforce in large numbers without causing wage stagnation seen in the US.
http://www.visualizingeconomics.com/2007/03/14/comparing-income-of-top-01-percent-in-five-countries/
2007-12-24 04:50:26 · answer #1 · answered by meg 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, it the influx of woman has not affected men's wages.
Companies that practice, and people who accept, less-than-favorable wage policies have affected wages.
2007-12-24 10:15:53 · answer #2 · answered by Grey 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No,not at all.
2007-12-31 00:28:08 · answer #3 · answered by peppersham 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋