Law of Physics---
Two objects cannot occupy the same space at the same time. Kaboom!
Example: My car and the landlord's fence.
2007-12-22 17:47:01
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answer #1
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answered by CarolSandyToes1 6
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The question is filled with contradiction!
Before one can say that a force is irresistible, then it must have been shown that no object is found to be immovable when it is applied. However, before one can say that an object is immovable, then it must have been shown that no force was able to move it. So how then can there be an irresistible force meeting an immovable object when the existence of one means the non-existence of the other????
teddy boy
2007-12-22 21:21:31
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answer #2
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answered by teddy boy 6
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First of all there is no such thing as a Immovable object,
As the word object is finite.
The Irresistible force that I can only figure out to be is a Black Hole.
So the answer is the object would be crushed in simple terms
to the point of breaking down into whatever elements that composed it and then these elements would be lets say gobbled up by the laws of attraction!
2007-12-22 21:23:33
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answer #3
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answered by forefune 2
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Every so often I see this question. It is an impossible question because of a quirk of English (and most other human languages.)
There is a theory by Goedel regarding languages. It says that a language can be complete or correct but not both. English is complete - and therefore is capable of asking impossible questions.
The irresistable force and immovable object are hypothetical entities in the first place, so NEITHER can exist in the real world. But the very act of asking the question places two contrary absolutes in the same sentence - which is a total violation of logic. The question is INVALID. It HAS NO MEANING. But people who ask it don't understand this failing of language that allows you to aks meaningless questions. In math, this question cannot be formulated to give an answer. What it would give, if it gave anything at all, would be a form of infinity that says "you attempted to perform an illegal math operation." (as for example, dividing by zero.)
So when you ask invalid questions, don't expect straight answers. Expect curve balls.
2007-12-22 21:11:29
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answer #4
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answered by The_Doc_Man 7
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You're encountering a classic logic error called the informal fallacy of false dilemma—also known as false choice, false dichotomy, falsified dilemma, fallacy of the excluded middle, black and white thinking, false correlative, either/or fallacy, and bifurcation—involves a situation in which two alternative statements are held to be the only possible options, when in reality there exists one or more other options which have not been considered. Irresistible and Immovable deny any shadings.
It's the same concept as "you're either with us or against us." It simply isn't so.
Good luck!
2007-12-22 21:15:30
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answer #5
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answered by Ken 7
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An object is immovable according to newton's laws only if it had infinite mass. Since the mass of the universe is finite, there are no immovable objects.
So, no need to worry your head about such impossibilities.
2007-12-22 22:56:21
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answer #6
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answered by deepinsight 3
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I would guess that this irresistible force would go to the object itself since the force can still move, and is attracted to it [[:
But since your question says they met, perhaps this means that they're already stuck together.
Is this a highly hypothetical question? X3
2007-12-22 21:11:09
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answer #7
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answered by Kat H 2
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Jeebus appears and tells you to stop screwing around.
2007-12-22 22:19:40
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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somethin's gotta give
somethin's gotta give
somethin's gotta giiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiivee
*love that song! :)*
2007-12-22 21:05:52
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answer #9
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answered by artsy 3
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