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If so, how is it different than "real hope"?

2007-12-22 11:40:56 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

6 answers

Hope must be based on a solid foundation of faith, faith that grew because God is true to His word and cannot lie, so when we pray for something beyond our capability to bring into being --we petition God to do it for us. If He has granted petitions in the past then we can hope that He may again. Since we cannot know His reasons, we can only ask and trust, trust that it is of His will whatever the outcome and that is best. That is what a believer does in his heart. You must test your reasons for asking to see if they are of Gods will, that would be "of goodness" if so then you only have that premiss to go by we don't know we must believe in faith and not doubt. False hope would be believing God will definately do something we ask for, we can't know. Hope is the evidence of things not yet seen, yet we know that all things that are made are made by the unseen Hebrews 11:1

2007-12-22 11:56:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

In the same way it is different from true hope, the premise is false.

Premise (argument)
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In discourse, a premise (also "premiss" in British usage) is a claim that is a reason (or element of a set of reasons) for, or objection against, some other claim. In other words, it is a statement presumed true within the context of the discourse for the purposes of arguing to a conclusion. Premises are sometimes stated explicitly by way of disambiguation or for emphasis, but more often they are left tacitly understood as being obvious or self-evident ("it goes without saying"), or not conducive to succinct discourse. For example, in the argument

Socrates is mortal, since all men are
it is evident that a tacitly understood claim is that Socrates is a man. The fully expressed reasoning is thus:

Since all men are mortal and Socrates is a man, it follows that Socrates is mortal.
In this example, the first two independent clauses preceding the comma (namely, "all men are mortal" and "Socrates is a man") are the premises, while "Socrates is mortal" is the conclusion.

In the context of ordinary argumentation, the rational acceptability of a disputed conclusion depends on both the truth of the premises and the soundness of the reasoning from the premises to the conclusion.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Premise_%28argument%29

2007-12-22 20:26:17 · answer #2 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 0 1

Unfortunately, when doctors tell us that our loved ones are no longer functioning mentally (brain dead), we want to hope that they are wrong. They are rarely wrong about such tragedies, but we have, probably, the false hope that they are.

2007-12-22 19:54:41 · answer #3 · answered by I Heart Holidays... 6 · 0 0

Were the members of NASA, during the tragedy, of Apollo 13; have false hopes in shooting the moon? Perhaps. But false hope, as history records, can turn into growth and victory, somehow....yes?

2007-12-22 19:50:24 · answer #4 · answered by SophiaSeeker 5 · 1 0

You first must define hope. Personally, I define it as, "Submitting oneself to trust in the positive and beneficial outcome of an event governed entirely by chance."

I think, regarding my definition, "false hope" would be a misnomer. "False hope" is generally used to define hope in a chance that is very small or zero. So, it wouldn't really be false, but maybe a better term would be "fool's hope."

2007-12-22 19:57:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That would be a question for the masters..I think it would depend on what you pursuing the hope would think.. and know

2007-12-22 19:56:21 · answer #6 · answered by Ell 3 · 0 0

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