I've found a gradient of -1 over 2/3 is this the same as 3/2 and if so why? I can remember something about having to convert the fraction when you get rid of the -1 to get 1 over but I'm not sure.
Thanks to anyone who can help, I'm preparing for a maths exam in a few weeks time.
2007-12-22 11:15:44 · 7 answers · asked by azuradragonfly 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
(-1)
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(2)
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(3)
(- 3)
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2
- 3
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2
2007-12-22 22:09:45 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
-1 over 2/3 is -1 divided 2/3. We have a rule in division that says: instead of dividing we can multiply provided we take the reciprocal of the divisor.
So, a ÷ b = a x 1/b.
-1 ÷ 2/3 = - 1 x 3/2 = - 3/2 ANS (negative not positive)
teddy boy
2007-12-22 11:27:10 · answer #2 · answered by teddy boy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by the upside-down fraction:
-1÷ (2/3) = -1 * (3/2)
= -3/2
2007-12-22 11:20:05 · answer #3 · answered by DWRead 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
When you say -1 over 2/3 you are saying -1 divided by 2/3
So you must make 2/3 a reciprocal which is 3/2 and multiply it by -1.
-1 * 3/2= -3/2
The answer is negative 3 and 1/2
2007-12-22 11:31:52 · answer #4 · answered by Internet Explorer 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
-1 over (2/3) is i think -3/2 not 3/2.
-1/(2/3) = [-1*(3)]/2(taking 3 which is the denominator of denominator to numerator)
=-3/2
all the best for ur maths test!
2007-12-22 11:22:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(-1)/(2/3) is the same as -1 * 3/2 which is equal to -3/2.
2007-12-22 11:26:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
gradient = (--1) / (2/3) = (--1)*(3/2) = -- 3/2
when you divide by a fraction (numerator/denominator), you multiply by (denominator/numerator) or the inverse of fraction.
2007-12-22 11:44:58 · answer #7 · answered by sv 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋