Lets say me and my twin both woke up at eight in the morning. I went to bed at 1 a.m and my twin went to bed at 12 am. Now when you think of sleep time seems to be non-existent. Does that mean my twin is actually one hour ahead of me?
2007-12-20 22:25:23 · 3 answers · asked by Some Dude with a computer 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
The passage of time is independent of whether any particular human is awake or asleep.
You may think you can get more done if you 'burn the candle at both ends' by getting less sleep than your body needs. And you can, for a short time. But lots of research and experience show that the body is at its best, healthiest, and most productive when it is allowed to sleep as much as it needs to.
2007-12-21 05:54:07 · answer #1 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You may not have been aware of the hour that went by, but you were still alive, your brain was still active and time still went by. There would be no difference.
The only way a twin could get ahead of you is if you were completely dead no brain activity and then resuscitated.
Now, this is semantics because your body still existed, however being that it was dead, it was no longer growing living tissue, and your brain wasn't active.
2007-12-21 06:31:23 · answer #2 · answered by Nick 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no and you are existing when you are sleeping, you are just unconcious. it doesnt mean like he traveled time or anything?
2007-12-21 06:29:43 · answer #3 · answered by MJ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋