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... and Aztecs in Mexico Hispanics?

2007-12-20 13:33:45 · 26 answers · asked by Mexicano 2 in Social Science Anthropology

Celts in Spain speak Spanish
Celts in Ireland speak English

Aztecs in Mexico speak Spanish
Aztecs in USA speak English.


so . . .

2007-12-20 13:42:05 · update #1

26 answers

Celts are Celts, Anglos are Anglos, and Aztecs are Aztecs.

Everyone is mixed together nowadays and all of these empires and tribes have fallen, but if someone in Ireland or Spain or the US wants to identify as Celtic even though they may have at least Viking if not plenty of other mixed blood, then fine for them. The same goes for "Anglos" despite them mixing with Celts, Vikings, Jutes, Saxons, Picts, Normans, Romans, etc. and for "Aztecs" despite them mixing with Tepanecs, Acolhuas, Tlaxcala, Spaniards, etc.

Ethnic identity is whatever one wishes it to be these days, though I don't suppose I (Irish/German ancestors) could really claim !Kung ethnicity, so within reason most people have plenty to choose from, and from the designations you bring up I doubt any have been isolated from the rest of the world enough to have a single individual "pureblood" of their ranks.

2007-12-20 14:22:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Celts in Ireland aren't Anglos. And neither are Aztecs in the USA. The term "Anglo" comes from "Angle", a Germanic tribe that settled England before Rome took over the British Isles. Hence the term Anglo-Saxon to describe someone of English descent (the Saxons were another tribe that invaded and conquered England as Rome withdrew from the island). The Celts were a different tribe that settled in Ireland, Spain, and other areas of Europe. Celtics in Ireland are known as Celts.

Hispanic is an ethnic term meaning someone who comes from a Spanish-speaking nation. Someone can be both Celtic and Hispanic. Aztec is a native American tribe. So someone can be a Hispanic Native American of the Aztec tribe, which is what Aztecs are.

2007-12-20 13:42:09 · answer #2 · answered by N.P. 2 · 1 0

Celts in Europe are Celts, Aztecs are not Hispanic at all, but Indians. All of Mexico, Central & South American were Indian until the Spanish arrived,but the Celtic culture had long since left Spain before they came to the new world.

2007-12-20 13:41:58 · answer #3 · answered by okie's back 3 · 2 0

Celts in Ireland and Great Britain would only be called Anglos by someone ignorant of culture or personally chauvanist against "Anglos".
The Romanized Celto-Britons were culturally displaced and assimilated, if not ethnically cleansed, by foreign invasion by Germanic peoples, the Angles Saxons and Jutes. The Romanized Celto-Britons were driven to the periphery in Cornwall and Wales (the place names, ethnic names with the sound "Wal" come from Germanic appalations to the outsiders of barbarians. This is true for the Cymru of Wales, the Roumanians of Vallachia, the Romanized Gauls of Belgium/Wallonia ( thosewho did not take up Romanized Frankish or Jutes)
The Scots and Pictes of Albion/Scotland remained largely free for a time. The same is true for the Celts of Eire.
Eventually, the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms, which themselves organized to fight off Viking invasions, were conquered by the Normans (Vikings who settled in France). Under the Plantegenants (think Edward Longshanks), Normand England conquered Wales, Scotland, and Ireland. However these areas had sufficient time to create their own ethno-cultural or nationalist identities seperated from the demographically larger English.
To call Irish Anglos is a very nasty insult.

The Celts of Iberia/Hispania were much less well defined. This area was filled with differnt people and remaisn fo civilizations having Phoenecian/Carthegian settlements like Gades/Cadiz and Greek colonies. When the Romans invaded they largely assimilated the area by settling it with retired Roman soldiers. By the 4th century wen the Gothic Valdals invaded, Hispania was largely Roman.

Calling them Hispanic is a little false. The Celtic areas of Spain were not the source of migration to the New World. Rather it was the Vandal/Roman plains and former Moorish regions.

As for the Aztecs or descendands of Nuahatl people who have migrated back to the US, they not Anglo at all.


PS. I am a member of none of the ethnic gorups I mention above.

2007-12-20 14:13:27 · answer #4 · answered by Ron L 2 · 1 0

Let's clarify some terms.

1. Hispanic - defined by the ethnic combination of Spanish and those inhabitants of the island of Hispanola in the Carribean.

2. Celt - pre Anglo Saxon ethnic group of the British Isles, decended from ethnic Germanic tribes.

3. Anglo - Saxon - Combination of the Angles (pre Saxon inhabitants of the British Isles - aka Celts) and the Saxons (Invaders from Europe and Scandanavia - also Germanic)

So therefore:

Celts in Spain cannot be Hispanic. Only people decended from the combination of Spanish and New World Indian blood can be Hispanic. People in Spain are Spanish (nationality). There were Celts in Spain, but they were wiped out.

The Celts in Ireland were consumed by the invasions of the Romans, Anglo-Saxons, and every invasion since.

There are people with Aztec heritage in the US - many Mexicans are decended from the Aztec and Maya peoples. However, they are not Anglos unless they have more than 50% caucasian blood. Even then, in our national convoluted system of racial identification, it isn't clear.

Get those terms straight!

Jay

2007-12-23 15:52:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Celts in Ireland are not 'Anglos'. There are simply decendants of Celts and a much smaller proportion who are decendants of the Anglo-Saxons who came to Ireland during the Plantations. In fact genetic studies have shown that the Irish have most in common with the people of north west Spain.

2007-12-20 13:47:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Just to add to your confusion, a colony of Welsh Celts colonized Argentina in the 19th century and began to intermarry with their Spanish-speaking neighbors. As their progeny eventually got swallowed up by the majority population and stopped speaking Welsh, at what point did they stop being Celts?

2007-12-21 20:30:36 · answer #7 · answered by Unrepentant Fenian Bastard 4 · 0 0

Celts are from Scotland, and Ireland. Aztecs are and indian tribe from Mexico.

2007-12-25 12:22:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes, Mexicans that can speak English are as much of an Anglo as I am. It is such an ignorant term that it makes me angry when someone calls me Anglo. It would be as stupid as calling all Mexicans Aztecs.

2007-12-20 18:56:39 · answer #9 · answered by bravozulu 7 · 1 0

You got it all wrong.

Spanish and the Irish have a related ancestry because they are both descended from Celts. But the Aztecs are Native Americans, no matter what language they speak.

2007-12-20 14:23:31 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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