a median in an isosceles triangle is a perpendicular bisector in some cases. it's a line segment with one end point of a vertex of the triangle and one endpoint of the midpoint of the opposite side from the vertex. It is only perpendicular if the vertex/endpoint of the median is the "top" of the isosceles triangle; at the point where the two congruent sides meet. If the median has an endpoint of one of the other vertexes, it is not necessarily perpendicular, although it is a bisector of the opposite side.
2007-12-20 11:26:03
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answer #1
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answered by <3 3
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No that's not right. A median goes from a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side. When going from the base vertices, it doesn't turn out to be a perp. bisector.
The only time a median is a perpendicualr bisector is when it starts at the top vertex.
2007-12-20 19:16:19
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answer #2
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answered by ☼ 3
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That is correct. Not only is the median from the vertex angle to the base a perpendicular bisector, it is the angle bisector of the vertex angle.
2007-12-20 19:15:25
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answer #3
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answered by Duke Paul-Muad'Dib Atreides 6
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Yes, the median in an isosceles tirangle is also a perpendicular bisector.
It divides the third side in two equal halves.
2007-12-20 19:20:27
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answer #4
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answered by thatcrazycoolkid 2
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perpendicular bisector
divides it into 2 congruent sections
2007-12-20 19:23:39
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answer #5
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answered by Breyanna 2
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yeh medians are drawn from a vertex to a side and is perpendicular to that side
2007-12-20 19:15:06
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answer #6
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answered by peanutwafers 2
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Sorry, I don't understand the question. A median does not "connect two congruent sides". Please clarify for us.
2007-12-20 19:17:41
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answer #7
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answered by whabtbob 6
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yes, correct, it shares all the three properties
2007-12-20 19:18:06
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answer #8
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answered by Theta40 7
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yes
2007-12-20 19:15:38
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answer #9
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answered by Roy 5
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correct
2007-12-20 19:14:10
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answer #10
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answered by Vball chick 1
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