Well, it was Palestine long before British control.
Don't let anyone confuse you this is purely a conflict between religions, Judaism and Islam, not people, Israelis and Palestinians. Also this war has been instigated by individuals seeking power nothing more.
This current conflict started because of the Egyptian propaganda machine before the first 6 days war. The then President of Egypt needed a scapegoat to remove the growing religious pressure off of him and onto something else. Since he was the leader of a predominately Islamic nation he used the Jewish occupation of Jerusalem and the "Holy Land" to galvanize his followers and make a name for himself. So since the sixties and the 6 days war these two peoples have been at each others throats. Now Egypt and Syria attacked Israel in the 6 Days war and Israel won thereby tripleing its land which includes the West Bank the area thats in dispute today.
So who's land does it belong to?
Well if you judge it by:
Who was their first: Jews
Who made it prosper: Jews
Who owned it rightfully in modern times:Jews
Who bought most of the land from the Ottomans:Jews
Who won more land after they were attacked by their neighbors: Israel
Israel has only remove people from its land because the people there became violent and started murdering other through terrorism. That's a right that all nations have and should exercises. On top of all of this the Israelis have made concession after concession in order to establish peace. For one reason or another its always the Palestinians fault that peace never succeeds wether it be because of terrorism, splinter groups, or no clear leadership. Now we have another Middle east leader, Mahmoud Ahmadinejad, following in the footsteps of Egypts President. He has called for the destruction of Israel saying that its must be "wiped from the face of the earth".
2007-12-20 12:08:04
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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My suggestion is somebody in this little happy answer group look up the Ottoman Empire and their provincial regions. This area was conquered in the 1300's at no time was it given the name Palestine that's a mere 600 years. Prior to them we have the Saracen Empire they called it Syria, Before Them Byzantium called the area the Orient. The only people to historically refer to the area were the Romans and the it was Called Judea-Palestina or Syria Palestina. The document below is from the Ottoman Empire in 1906 not to long before Sykes-Picot. At the San Remo conference was the term Palestine officially used to define the area. This said I feel for all of the people of the region the authorities under which the live cannot stay in power with out the continual conflict, This has placed an undue hardship on them, while the boarder with Israel is tightly controlled due to the proclivity of some to suicide bomb the area it is not blockaded as some would say. Simply look at the map there is an ample boarders with Syria and Egypt.
2014-10-12 06:18:58
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answer #2
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answered by ? 1
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May I correct you? :)
The British did not name that area Palestine.
The Romans did. It was formerly Judea, home of the Jews. Then the Romans conquered it and kicked the Jews out. To sever the link between the Jews and the region, they renamed it 'Palestina' after the Philistines, a sea faring people who often attacked other nations, the Jews included.
For 3000 years continuously, Jews have lived there. The term 'Palestinian' originally referred to Jews, Arabs and Christians. Until 1967 there was no such thing as the 'Palestinian people' that we know today!
When the Palestinians were kept in refugee camps by Jordan, they were happy to call themselves Jordanian - there was not a single demand for a separate Palestine.
In 1948, there were many Jews living in Palestine. Arabs from Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, and Egypt had arrived there too, drawn to the area by the way the Jews were irrigating it and turning it from desert into a beautiful place to live.
Britain held the mandate and she proposed PARTITION.
A small part of the land would go to the Jews, a larger part to the Palestinian Arabs.
The Jews said yes. The Arab world went beserk, though, at the mere idea of a Jewish democracy in the middle east.
Five Arab countries declared war on the brand new state of Israel. Five Arab armies surrounded Israel and attacked her. And the Arab leaders told the Palestinian Arabs to get out, and that they could return once the Jews were conquered.
But Israel fought back and in doing so, got parts of the land she had not been given by Britain and the UN.
The Palestinian Arabs were left homeless. At the exact same time, an EQUAL number of Jews were made refugees when kicked out of all the Arab states. They were immediately absorbed into Israel.
But the Palestinian Arabs got put in refugee camps where they still live today in Jordan, Egypt and Lebanon.
Israel takes up 0.01% of the middle east.
There are 22 Islamic countries.
Crazy, don't you think?
2007-12-20 11:07:46
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The best, most thoroughly researched and documented source is Joan Peters' book, "From Time Immemorial".
You can get if from Amazon.com or Barnes and Noble if it isn't available locally.
Joan Peters was a pro-Arabist historian until she actually did the research on the Arab-Israeli conflict. The book exposes in detail the facts surrounding the "Palestinians" and their "origins".
The majority of the Arab inhabitants of "Palestine" prior to 1948 had actually immigrated to the area no more than 50 years before. They came, ironically, because the Jewish inhabitants had established factories and businesses that paid far more than the surrounding Arab countries and had far, far better treatment of workers.
The "Palestinians", as a separate, distinct "people" didn't exist prior to 1967.
If you do even superficial research, you'll find there's absolutely *** NO *** reference to "the Palestinian people" until after the ' 67 war. Then the Arab and anti-Semetic PR machine started rolling and, through repeated references to "the Palestinian people" narrowed the focus of the conflict from a broad Arab-Israeli one to a more managable one of Palestinian-Israeli proportions.
Read the book . . . you'll never view this conflict in the same light again.
http://islam-the-monster-unchained.blogspot.com
2007-12-21 01:13:57
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Why do people try and act like there were ever a people called palestinians ?
The Ottoman Empire area called palestine, covered what is now Israel, the current Palestinian lands, the Country of Jordan, parts of Lebanon and parts of Syria.
So why aren't the lebanonese, syrians and jordanians called palestinians ??
They all lived in the area called palestine, before the Ottoman Empire was broken up.
The term palestinians, didn't exist before the lebanonese and Syrian parts of the area called palestine, were given to syria and lebanon and the land east of the jordan river allowed to form the Country of Jordan.
Then the arabs who remained in the western area once called palestine, became the palestinian people.
But you could just as easily say, the Jordanians are the Palestinian people.
2007-12-20 11:20:16
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answer #5
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answered by jeeper_peeper321 7
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2000 years ago the Romans and then the Vikings,Saxons and French in turn invaded Britain and slowly pushed the original inhabitants out to the far reaches of these islands. Ethnic cleansing was the mission of the day and it was a success. There are many of the original inhabitants still here who call themselves Welsh, Scottish, and Irish. I wonder what reaction England would have to the suggestion that English people are not welcome and that they should all move back to France or wherever.
How far back do you go to justify the right to re-inhabit and take over another country?
Answers please,
2014-08-04 21:51:21
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answer #6
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answered by Adrian 1
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Prior to the re-creation of an Islamic state Arabs and Jews lived in the region in peace. Except when the Nazi's were in town. The re-creation of Israel enraged Muslim nations surrounding it. They ALL invaded Israel. They had their butts handed back to them by the Israeli's. Thus Israel ended up with a larger country than which they were given which further fermented the angst against them.
Paperback hit the nail on the head. I read her answer after posting mine. Good Job.
2007-12-21 02:14:48
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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I'm no authority on this subject beyond having paid attention in World History class but I believe I have read the same thing somewhere along the line. One must remember that it was the Brits who formed the countries Saudi Arabia and I believe Jordan. So why wouldn't they rename a country that's been there for thousands of years. After all was it not their manifest destiny? Does hubris apply here?
2007-12-20 12:46:06
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answer #8
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answered by Mike S 7
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The only reason it isn't Palestinian land is because Jewish refugees went to that land looking for a new home because the land is religiously holy. They appealed the U.N., which it was illegally dubbed Israel. It was illegal because the U.N. didn't follow the proper procedure in declaring a country independent. The reason why is because there is no way it would have ever been ratified.
In principle and going by laws, it is Palestinian land. Why couldn't the Jewish refugees live with the people that already lived on the land? Because the Jewish immigrants wanted it all. This is why the war between Israel and Palestine will never end. One side has to commit genocide to end it.
Edit: Read up about before the Jewish refugees came and declared the land Israel. Also, read up how the state of Israel was ratified.You will see where the modern day controversy comes from.
2007-12-20 10:53:57
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answer #9
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answered by Arcanum Noctis 5
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I think you may have go back further, thousands of years in fact.
"Different geographic definitions of Palestine have been used over the millennia"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestine
Did the Palestinians have anything to do with the persecution of jews before, and during world war 2, why should they suffer!
People shouldn't be left with the wrong impression :)
2007-12-20 11:07:00
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answer #10
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answered by . 5
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