I am currently going through divorce in the UK and I was informed that my wife has been married in the country of her origin at the time of marrying me. I managed to get evidence from her country which to my shock showed she married at age of 12. At her country this is a valid marriage. I now want to apply for nullity on grounds of bigamy, but her lawyer claims under age marriage is not recognised by UK law and hence I have no case of bigamy. Does anyone know if someone marries in another country under the law of that country (even if under age) is it recognised by british law?
2007-12-20 09:43:52 · 4 answers · asked by kamran s 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I found the answer to my question: If she was national of the country where the marriage took place and the marriage is recognised by the local laws, British law recognises that marriage. I have checked with National Registration Office (overseas part) and they confirmed it. My solicitor also checked the law and confirmed it. Thanks for all the answers
2007-12-22 13:55:51 · update #1
If underage marriage isn't recognized, so there's no bigamy, what about fraud? Not telling someone you've been married before is fraud in the US. Your divorce lawyer should be advising you about this. We don't really know anything here; we're just giving you opinions and/or guessing.
2007-12-20 10:11:30 · answer #1 · answered by Debdeb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your lawyer is right. If the wedding took place when she was 12, English Law says the marriage was not valid and she was therefore free to marry you.
2007-12-20 17:50:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your lawyer knows what he is talking about... He went to school for stuff like this, start listening to him.
2007-12-20 18:00:56 · answer #3 · answered by ♪Msz. Nena♫ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not really sure.. you need a lawyer of your own. if if this is true,. there may be a loop hole that you can jump through
2007-12-20 17:57:43 · answer #4 · answered by vis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋