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Where in their past did this develop and why didn't it spread? Are Runes ruled out because they were more prevalent than in just Ancient Britian?

2007-12-19 11:30:42 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

Typo *Britain.

2007-12-19 11:31:14 · update #1

I mean, I know that other European languages don't have this sound, I just want to know why the British do have it.

2007-12-19 11:38:33 · update #2

3 answers

Here's an interesting article on the subject:
http://web.cn.edu/kwheeler/IE_Main5_Grimm.html

2007-12-19 11:36:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Some sounds just did not emerge in some languages. The th sound is rare. It's interesting that Greek has it. When a sound doesn't exist in a language, it is difficult to learn to say and often avoided. That's why a lot of non-British English speakers seem to substitute a "d" or "t".

2007-12-19 19:38:16 · answer #2 · answered by Snow Globe 7 · 2 0

Probably for the same reason non-Spanish speakers don't roll their R's. If you don't learn it as a small child, it's tough to do comfortably.

2007-12-20 12:47:02 · answer #3 · answered by bikinkawboy 7 · 1 0

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