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I'm 90,000 miles from a distant 'virtual' planet. Call it a point. Beginning from zero, I continue to accelerate. Passing through that point I record my speed. (the mass of the planet can be anything).

I do this again while increasing my distance from this point to 110,000 miles. I record my speed at exactly 100,000 miles. (10,000 miles short of the point).

Are they the same speeds? Can someone help me to set this problem up so I know what I'm doing in the future? I'm not a great algebra student. Yes, I tried astonomy/space.

2007-12-19 06:45:32 · 4 answers · asked by toolmaker 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

eyeonthe... hi, there is, under some circumstance, an equality. can you explain this in simple laymans language?

2007-12-19 07:33:05 · update #1

Don S... does this take into account that the acceleration is less for the 'second' trip but longer trip?

2007-12-19 07:45:54 · update #2

4 answers

No. The speeds are different.

A: -90,000 mi -> 0
B: -110,000 mi -> -10,000mi

Velocity of A at 0 will be greater than B at -10,000.
In fact, since mass is at a point, velocity of A at 0 → ∞
>>F = G*M*m/r^2 =a*m
>>a = F/m = H*M/r^2
>>as r→0, a→∞

At other distances, eg.
A: -100,000 mi -> -10,000mi
B: -110,000 mi -> -20,000mi
Velocity of A at -10,000 mi is still greater than
Velocity of B at -20,000 mi.
Because
acceleration A from -100,000mi to -10,000mi
is greater than
acceleration B from -110,000mi to -20,000mi

For setup where v_initial=0,
v_final = [2*G*M* (1/r_f - 1/r_i)]^0.5
G = gravitational constant
M = mass of big object
r_i = distance from center of big object, initial
r_f = distance from center of big object, final

2007-12-19 08:42:48 · answer #1 · answered by Andrew D 2 · 0 0

Let's see if I have this straight. You're at r = 90,000 mi from a planet of mass M. Then you move on to R = 110,000 mi. At r + S = 100,000, you record your velocity v. S = ut + 1/2 at^2, which is the distance you traveled in time t while accelerating at a. u is the initial velocity you were at when at r.

v = u + at; where u is the initial velocity at r and v is the velocity you recorded at r + S. Thus, when a <> 0, v <> u and the answer is, no they are not the same velocities. If there were no average acceleration over the distance S, then v = u and they would be the same velocities.

2007-12-19 15:19:18 · answer #2 · answered by oldprof 7 · 0 0

Well your acceleration is a=GM/R^2. This comes from the gravitational force equation F=GmM/R^2. F=ma and your little m's cancel out. For your first run you are going to have a v1=GM/(90,000)^2*t1. Where t1 is the time it took you to get there. For your second run you are going to get v2=GM/(100,000)^2 *t2. t2 is going to be greater than t1 since your a is GM/R^2 and is more heavily dependent upon R. Therefore no your velocities will not be the same

2007-12-19 15:37:37 · answer #3 · answered by Don S 3 · 0 0

no because you stated that you coninue to accerate. speed is velocity. v=x/t. acceleration is a=v/t.

2007-12-19 15:28:12 · answer #4 · answered by Kenny S 3 · 0 0

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