2007-12-19 06:39:19 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1.5%
=0.6 / 40 * 100
2007-12-19 06:43:29 · answer #1 · answered by Love Guru 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first step is to write 0.6 as a fraction of 40., which is simply
0.6/40
Now we need to multiply the numerator and denominator of the fraction by 10 to get rid of the decimals :
0.6/40 = 0.6/40 x 10/10 = 6/400
In order to find the simplest form of the fraction 6/400 we cancel out the greatest common divisor of 6 and 400, which is 2 :
6/400 = 3/200
Now we just need to convert this fraction to a percentage :
3/200 = 1.5%
So we have the final answer :
0.6 is 1.5% of 40.
2007-12-19 14:44:04 · answer #2 · answered by mathdummie11 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
0.6 / 40 = 0.015
Convert to percent: 0.015 * 100
= 1.5%
2007-12-19 14:43:53 · answer #3 · answered by tominator 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.6/40*100=1.5%
2007-12-19 14:43:48 · answer #4 · answered by Siva 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.6 = 40x
x = .6/40 = .015 = 1.5 %
2007-12-19 14:44:28 · answer #5 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋