What if the person has already been sentenced from trial and the order was determined by the clerk of courts to not be because of new charges?
What would the person need to be 'competent' for in that case?
And if 'incompetent' is not the same as 'insane', when would this order be made?
(The person is in prison until 2015 for multiple aggravated robbery charges. These crimes were committed for the sole purpose of supporting a crack habit. No weapons were ever involved).
2007-12-19 04:33:39 · 2 answers · asked by Cita 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Maybe he's filing an appeal, maybe his lawyer is challenging the sentence, maybe the sentence included some sort of drug counseling in prison that the counselor now doubts he's competent to undergo - could be a number of issues.
There could also be legal issues unrelated to the criminal charges. Maybe he has child custody or visitation issues or something like that which he has ongoing activity on.
Richard
2007-12-19 04:40:06 · answer #1 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
His case may be ongoing, or he may be involved in other cases, either as a defendant or a witness.
2007-12-19 12:49:47 · answer #2 · answered by Barry C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋