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Where does western classical music led us to? Is blues & jazz a part of it?

2007-12-19 03:42:33 · 6 answers · asked by Vik 1 in Entertainment & Music Music Classical

6 answers

No, jazz and blues are separate genres of western music that grew and evolved from the traditional music of America's black population.

Jazz has influenced many classical composers, however, and music by some of these composers sits between the 'classical' and 'jazz' styles (eg Leonard Bernstein in some of his works).

I'm not sure I would identify 'branches' of western classical music, although, of course, it has constantly changed through time.

2007-12-19 03:59:08 · answer #1 · answered by del_icious_manager 7 · 1 1

After reading the other responses, what I think you are trying to ask is what music has been inspired or partly/wholly credits classical music as a source (kinda like a father/mother thing)

Almost every type of music we hear has at least a twig back to classical music. Pop singers use the same scales and chords. Guitarists use the same basic techniques, and so on.

And i have to argue, Jazz does have roots back to classical music. It was a combination of the musical styling of the newly freed black population and western instruments and theory that gave birth to jazz. It was when western composers and musicians, drawn in by this new hybrid style that Jazz was catapulted to international fame and ingrained eternally into the American culture.

2007-12-23 01:49:12 · answer #2 · answered by mateohao2003 3 · 0 0

I must agree with another's answer...we don't neccessarily have "branches," we have "eras." Western music is a blend of cultural influences from all over the world. "Western" classical was an era in itself--we use classical to identify a large group of musical styles (basically anything NOT pop), yet classical was a style and had it's own era of development.

Another person gives you some eras to explore. Don't be afraid of 20th century music---I think some are hesitant to change their opinions of what classifies music as music, when long ago the use of 3rd and 6th interval harmonies were considered dissonant and unmusical, if that tells you anything about the potential of where postmodern can evolve.

2007-12-20 16:15:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Well, western classical music has led to most other genres of music in at least a convoluted way. For example, music by Debussy influenced jazz quite a bit especially in terms of chords and harmonies.

By by branches do you mean... minimalism, serialism, neoclassicism, primitivism, etc? Or time periods such as medieval, rennaisance, baroque, classical, romantic, or 20th century?

2007-12-19 17:23:49 · answer #4 · answered by samuel g 2 · 1 0

Rather than branches, it is more common to classify classical music into periods:
Medieval, Renaissance, Baroque (late 17th adn early 18th Century), Classical (late 18th Century), Romantic (about 19th Century), Modern (about 1900 on).

2007-12-19 18:53:13 · answer #5 · answered by suhwahaksaeng 7 · 2 0

Blues and Jazz are not a part of it. These are primarily of Afro-American descent.

Western classical music leads us to what we have today: atonality, no form: in other words - and this is only my opinion for what its worth - an awful lot of audial nonsensical garbage.

After Stravinsky's "Rites of Spring", the doors shut for me. I don't understand, nor do I derive anything at all from listening to what is called present day modern music.

Wotan

2007-12-19 17:04:34 · answer #6 · answered by Alberich 7 · 1 2

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