That is if You don't eat and sleep there but own the real estate in a seperate locality from where You live. I f one isn't allowed to vote on local issues in the area you own property but do not classify it as your domicile it would seem to me to be an infringement of my enjoyment of the secondary property.
2007-12-19 03:07:41 · 5 answers · asked by geiniusbobiknow 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
"If voting rights run with property ownership, should one be able to vote on local issues.?" - If that was the case then you would be correct, however voting rights are based on citizenship not property ownership. Any citizen can vote, even renters or homeless people.
2007-12-19 03:22:14 · answer #1 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I agree with you. If you have multiple properties in different areas, you should be able to vote in each of those areas. On local issues only!! Not be able to vote two or three times for president or whatever. But if you have property in another county, you should be able to vote for those commissioners.
2007-12-19 11:16:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
This would mean that someone like Ted Turner, America's largest private landowner, could vote in 10 states and more than 40 different counties. Should one person's vote count so much more than anyone else's, merely because they are a wealthy landowner? The principle of "one person, one vote" is at the core of Democracy.
2007-12-19 11:32:00 · answer #3 · answered by TG 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you're so concerned about the issues at the other property, maybe you should move there and vote on it.
2007-12-19 11:16:47 · answer #4 · answered by bikinkawboy 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You only get to vote in ONE place. I have several properties in different states. Should I vote in all of them? No. That is fraud.
2007-12-19 11:12:04 · answer #5 · answered by PATRICIA MS 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋