English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

does anyone know how to do this one.

2007-12-17 13:07:17 · 3 answers · asked by whitenissanzx 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

The y-intercept of a function is the value of the function at x=0. So the y-intercept of 2^x + 2 is 2^0 + 2 = 1+2 = 3

2007-12-17 13:11:04 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 2 0

the y - intercept is 3.

plug (0) in for x. this means that the x-coordinate will be (0, y), and that y is the y-intercept.

2^(0) + 2 =

1 + 2 = 3

2007-12-17 13:11:48 · answer #2 · answered by jacobrcotton 3 · 1 0

THE ANSWER IS x=0 im prety sure because you need to get x by itself so your equation is 2^x +2 so to get x by itself you take 2x and so they multiply but to get x by itself we have to do the opisite which is ................(drumroll)............divition! so you need to get x by it self (no dur!) so you need to divide to 2 by itself and 2x over 2 is(long drum roll)........................the 2s cancell out so you get x but what you did to that one side(2x over 2, which is x) you have to do it to the other so you still have to divde by 2 on the other side because u did it to that other one so 2 over 2 the 2s cancell out sao its 0 what do u have left? (sybols crash) (drumroll) (cow mooing) (me laughing) x = 0 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! love much nikkip

2007-12-17 13:43:33 · answer #3 · answered by Nikki P 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers