In Islam, it is the Raper that supposed to get in trouble. The women is only in trouble if she commited the rape or wanted to get raped.
So why was the woman in the saudi case in trouble?
2007-12-17 11:52:58 · 10 answers · asked by لا إله إلاَّ الله 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I know she was pardoned, did her punishment start before she was pardoned? Like if they give lashes in parts, was she given any part? OR did she serve jail time yet?
2007-12-17 12:02:48 · update #1
OK,........If you don't know this but, Islam was one of the first religions that gave rights to Woman!
Judiasm wouldn't let women even touch their book.
Catholicism didn't give any rights to woman untill Constantine brought all the christain leaders to the world together.
That is when people divided into Trinitarians and Unitarians.
That is also when the temporary sect of the Nazeraths was created. Then the nazeraths waited a while to find the next prophet, and became muslims. Others waited longer and became Mormans.
if you wanna know what I'm talkin about, go here http://muhammad.com/cgi-bin/mt.cgi?lang=en&cfile=WeWantAChristmasTree
It is just a piece of history! I doubt a Jinn came down a Chimney JUST to talk to 2 kids.
2007-12-17 13:31:00 · update #2
It stated that she was at fault because she was in the company of a man whom she was not related to nor married to.
From what I read, she went to see a man whom she knew, to retrieve a picture that he had of her... because she was getting married to someone else.
2007-12-17 11:58:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because she was out of her home unaccompanied by a male family member.
She met a guy at the mall that had a photo of her on his cellphone from when they went to school together, and was threatening to tell her husband that she'd allowed him to taker her photograph with her face uncovered.
The car was hijacked and both she and the guy were gangraped. She was sentenced to 90 lashes, but her lawyer protested, so they increased it to 200.
Incidentally... Several people have referred to her as the "victim" of the rape. Under Islamic law she was NOT the victim. Under Islamic law, the "victim" of a rape is the girls father if she's unmarried, or her husband if she's married. A rape is considered to be the theft of sex from the man who was entitled to it, not an assault on the woman, like it is in the West.
EDIT - In granting her pardon, the King made a specific point of stating that he felt the punishment was fair, but that he was granting a pardon because of world opinion.
Richard
2007-12-17 20:03:56 · answer #2 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Then there was a Muslim father in Toronto, Canada who strangled to death his 16 year old daughter because she refused to wear a veil.
Remember boys and girls, Islam is the religion of peace!
2007-12-17 20:02:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
In the qur'an or hadith im not sure..you need four witnesses for someone to get convicted for rape..otherwise its the woman's fault for somehow provoking the rapist.
2007-12-17 20:03:09 · answer #4 · answered by TranquilStar 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Simply because a bunch of males who invented the Muslim Faith eon's ago wanted to control and subvert women. There again all religions follow the same doctrine,suppress the masses, control the women and for the men "bliss"........the answer................ban , outlaw , ALL religions = peace!
2007-12-17 20:05:11 · answer #5 · answered by Blazing a trail 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
She was alone with two men to whom she was not related. It's a shame, but that's what happened.
Mark Stewart, if I leave my house unlocked, am I asking to be robbed? If I leave my wallet on my front lawn?
2007-12-17 19:56:26 · answer #6 · answered by desotobrave 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
She is not in trouble any longer. She was pardoned.
2007-12-17 19:57:02 · answer #7 · answered by beez 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they have unusual law's over there, I don't think any woman would want to be raped. and as long as she was dressed accordingly, I would think she would not be in trouble, heard the king excused her, that is why we do not need islam in the USA!!! no thank you !!!!
2007-12-17 19:57:52 · answer #8 · answered by poopsie 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It's considered adultery anyway (or fornication is she wasn't married).
2007-12-17 20:33:45 · answer #9 · answered by Kirkaine 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its because of wrong saudi law
2007-12-18 03:27:50 · answer #10 · answered by Eccentric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋