2007-12-17 06:10:19 · 2 answers · asked by Emma K 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Property is what a man can lay claim to. If a man combines his effort...his labor...his ideas with legitimately unclaimed natural resources, then what he yields becomes his property by a direct connection to his maker through God's creation "nature."
Property is therefore sacrosanct in the Lockean canon. It is not only something which is beyond that which can be "granted" or bestowed by a regime, the regime is required to uphold the rights of property as a basic responsibility of civil government.
2007-12-17 17:11:23 · answer #1 · answered by M O R P H E U S 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Locke (contrary to Hobbes) claimed that we have a natural right to whatever part of nature we have 'mixed out labour with', if I till the soil, plant the crops, build the house and so on they are mine and will be inherited by my children.
He put some conditions on this saying that someone can accumulate as much as they like as long as it doesn't spoil in it's accumulation, enough has been left for others and it's accumulation is not harmful to others.
He didn't put gold and silver in this class which was lucky for Locke's wealthy friends eh?
2007-12-20 13:01:36 · answer #2 · answered by soppy.bollocks 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋