I am working on a college class assignment. Scenario is: A legal firms client has intentionally intercepted the firms mail and has opened and read it. I know this is considered an intentional civil tort case but I am needing the definition and possibly a case law for example. I have been looking for 3 days and cannot find one pertinent to this scenario. Help!
2007-12-17 05:39:25 · 4 answers · asked by dovesong76 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
There's no such crime.
The crime, in your hypothetical instance, is a violation of USPS regualtions - opening anothers mail is a Federal crime. (Under 18 USC 1702)
A civil tort would lie as well, and since - as you noted - it's an intentional tort, punitive damages could be awarded.
Richard
2007-12-17 05:44:47 · answer #1 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
oh i know that...i think.
It's like the time where people had to take the soilders into their house and feed them and all. Called the quartering act?
I think it means to come into someones pivacy with out asking, huge law about it, unless you have a search warrent.
2007-12-17 05:44:27 · answer #2 · answered by sakurasage 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mail is seperate inception. it is propeerty of the government. if the person eased dropped on the firm that violates one set of laws not intercepting and reading privileged letters
2007-12-17 05:42:59 · answer #3 · answered by crazzijimsmith 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
use wikipedia
2007-12-17 05:41:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋