I think "OF" is a preposition that can only be used in the objective case, whereas "most of men/most of people" are in the subjective case. Am i right???
2007-12-16 23:29:22 · 4 answers · asked by wesleyelvis 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Most is the superlative of more, meaning "the greatest or to the highest degree." It is an adjective that should come directly before the noun, without a preposition.
Fred is the most talented guy I know.
Fred ran the most organized political campaign.
Partition / Possession (of)
“They painted the front of the building white and green.”
“He broke the top of the table with his fist.”
Measure (by, of):
“We buy our olive oil by the 16 kilo container.”
“Please buy a quart of milk from the market.”
2007-12-16 23:46:18 · answer #1 · answered by Beach Saint 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Most" is a kind of determiner. So a noun directly comes after it, like " most men" or "most people". But when it is followed by a pronoun, it needs a preposition "of" ,like "most of them", not "most them". That's because pronouns themselves are determined, so they don't need any determiners or any determiner cannot come directly before pronouns. When the noun has a definite article "the", which is also a determiner, "most" requires the preposition "of" like "most of the men" or "most of the people" in the same way as " one of my friends" not "one my friends".
2007-12-17 08:42:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Improper grammar. It should be "most men" or "most people."
Hispanic people may make that mistake because in Spanish the word "of" would be used. The same may be true with other languages.
2007-12-17 07:32:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
i think the expression should be like - "most of THE men"
or " most of THE people"..........
2007-12-17 07:42:59 · answer #4 · answered by Lara G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋