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2007-12-16 19:39:12 · 2 answers · asked by Tim C 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

2007-12-16 20:31:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

By Stirling's formula (see link), n!^(1/n) will be asymptotic to
√(2πn)^(1/n) . (n/e)
= (2πn)^(1/(2n)) . n/e
Now lim (n-> ∞) (2πn)^(1/(2n)) = 1*, so 2(n!^(1/n)) will be asymptotic to 2 (1) . n/e and hence we will have
lim (n->∞) 2(n!^(1/n)) = ∞.

* This should be obvious, but if not, put n = e^k and note that 2π < e^2, so (2πn)^(1/(2n)) < (e^(k+2))^(1/(2e^k))
= e^((k+2)/(2e^k)) -> e^0 = 1.

2007-12-16 19:45:10 · answer #2 · answered by Scarlet Manuka 7 · 0 0

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