How about e^(-x²)? This is continuous, and is easily seen to be in L¹ (in fact, we have [-∞, ∞]∫|e^(-x²)| dx = [-∞, ∞]∫e^(-x²) dx = √π), but is nonzero on the entire real line.
2007-12-16 21:14:22
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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Let 1 ⤠p < â and (S, μ) be a measure space. Consider the set of all measurable functions from S to C (or R) whose absolute value raised to the p-th power has a finite Lebesgue integral, or equivalently, that
The set of such functions form a vector space, with the following natural operations:
and, for a scalar λ,
That the sum of two pth power integrable functions is again pth power integrable follows from the inequality |f + g|p ⤠2p (|f|p + |g|p). In fact, more is true. Minkowski's inequality says the triangle inequality holds for
Thus the set of pth power integrable functions, together with the function ||·||p, is a seminormed vector space, which we denote by
This can be made into a normed vector space in a standard way; one simply takes the quotient space with respect to the kernel of ||·||p. Since ||f||p = 0 if and only if f = 0 almost everywhere, in the quotient space two functions f and g are identified if f = g almost everywhere. The resulting normed vector space is, by definition,
For p = â, the space Lâ(S, μ) is defined as follows. We start with the set of all measurable functions from S to C (or R) which are essentially bounded, i.e. bounded up to a set of measure zero. Again two such functions are identified if they are equal almost everywhere. Denote this set by Lâ(S, μ). For f in Lâ(S, μ), its essential supremum serves as an appropriate norm:
As before, we have
if f â Lâ(S) â© Lq(S) for some q < â.
For 1 ⤠p ⤠â, Lp(S, μ) is a Banach space. Completeness can be checked using the convergence theorems for Lebesgue integrals.
The above definitions generalize to Bochner spaces.
Edit:
I hope the above information can help you determine your answer...Your answer, I think, can be inferred from the above info....
2007-12-16 17:59:18
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answer #2
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answered by Adyghe Ha'Yapheh-Phiyah 6
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