2007-12-16 16:18:31 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Because you were both ruled by the Spanish before declaring and winning your independence?
2007-12-16 16:22:34 · answer #1 · answered by don_sv_az 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because both countries were conquered and colonized by Spain. Who at the time of doing so, was one of the worlds great powers.
And because of this they share a common language, religion, societal norms, form of government and therefore all the Spanish traditional values.
Wotan
2007-12-16 16:32:41 · answer #2 · answered by Alberich 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
On a visit to Mexico I noted the similarity to the Philippines.
I think it comes from Spanish rule, followed by US influence.
2007-12-16 19:10:47 · answer #3 · answered by gravybaby 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah thats right both races were ruled by Spaniards aka spanish and philippines (my country) was ruled for over 300 yrs..which includes marying filipino women and had spanish nicknames,spanish way of living etc.
2007-12-16 16:32:29 · answer #4 · answered by i dig Q&A! 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
and because many Mexicans were sent to Philippines durint the viceroyal period as a... punishment.
2007-12-16 17:18:31 · answer #5 · answered by Seekerinlaw 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋