Well, strictly speaking, it doesn't have one, since f is not injective. However, we can find an inverse of f restricted to some interval on which it is injective, say, [-π/8, π/8]. Then we have:
f(x) = sin (2x) cos (2x) = 1/2 sin (4x)
So since f(f⁻¹(x)) = x, we have:
x = 1/2 sin (4f⁻¹(x))
2x = sin (4f⁻¹(x))
4f⁻¹(x) = arcsin (2x)
f⁻¹(x) = 1/4 arcsin (2x)
Note that the range of this function is indeed [-π/8, π/8], which was the interval to which we restricted the original function.
2007-12-16 14:03:33
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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