I don't understand why my teacher has that the antiderivative of 1/(e^z) is -e^z.
Can someone please explain this to me?
2007-12-16 09:40:46 · 4 answers · asked by laulaukins 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
(-e^-z)' = e^-z = 1/e^z
Therefore, the antiderivative of 1/(e^z) is -e^-z.
2007-12-16 09:46:40 · answer #1 · answered by sahsjing 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it is wrong , I explain this question
we have : 1/ a^n = a ^ - n , so
1 / e ^z = e ^ - z ,
antiderivative of 1 / (e^z) is - e ^ - z ,
because
integral ( e^ - z dz) = - (e^ - z )+ c
2007-12-16 18:30:33 · answer #2 · answered by LE THANH TAM 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your antiderivative is wrong. It should be -e^-z
1/e^z = e^-z and the antiderivative of that is -e^-z + C.
2007-12-16 17:49:58 · answer #3 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/e^z is e^(-z)
The integral of this is -e^(-z)+C or you can also write this as -1/e^z +C
2007-12-16 17:46:52 · answer #4 · answered by cidyah 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋