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this question is about the fashoda incident . my 2nd question is ho does each country interpret the crisis ?
thanks a lot ;]]]

2007-12-15 22:38:22 · 3 answers · asked by cheerlead66 2 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

I don't really understand your question. How about 100 years war?

2007-12-16 00:26:00 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Until the Entente Cordiale, prior to WW1, Britain and France had been the most traditional of enemies,
(20 wars since the Norman invasion, by one count!)

From Crecy to Waterloo via Agincourt, there are no shortage of historical events with these two sides opposed.

With the theme of the clash of expanding empires, France and Britain had fought in North America and in India before the conflicts of interest in Africa.
While England (not then Britain) had lost extensive territories in France, (for a while holding on to Calais as a last remnant) North America and India went the other way.

In Africa, Britain was effectively trying to create a corridor north to south, "From Cairo to the Cape": of practical trade interest, as railways now offered possibilites for long-distance land transport.
But France's colonies were largely West and East, and any ambition to connect these would literally cut across British interests.
Beyond that, Wiki knows more than I do.
.

2007-12-16 03:46:49 · answer #2 · answered by Pedestal 42 7 · 0 0

i think when ever it came to blows between these countrys Britain always won ,so maybe the french thought is it worth it

2007-12-16 02:58:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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