No greencards or anything like that. No arranged marriages. I'm talking about if one or more person is unable to physically have sex but still wants to get married...is it possible to have a lifelong marriage if the other partner agrees to a sexless marriage?
2007-12-15 20:20:54 · 8 answers · asked by Butterfly 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Explain how it's possible.
2007-12-15 20:21:10 · update #1
If another person is not interested in sex at all and don't want to have any kids, it will work.
2007-12-15 20:23:34 · answer #1 · answered by terliuke 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sexuality and desire are on a spectrum, like a sliding scale. Some want more, some less. So, yes, there are people who have happy, sexless marriages. But why would someone be physically unable to have sex? Like quadroplegia? There are ways to work around it, and there's always still kissing and touching. If someone lacks physical desire or is turned off by sex, I'd suggest a full physical and counseling, just to make sure that there's nothing wrong. However, it's a spectrum, so it's valid to not be interested in sex, and a sexless marriage is possible.
2007-12-16 04:27:49 · answer #2 · answered by Katherine W 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is possible. Difficult but possible. Because, people get married for a variety of reasons all of them important. They basically agree to be partners and family. They agree to be only for each other. In all things to support each other emotionally, physically, and sexually. That support does not necessarily mean that a person agrees with the decision of the husband but it means that they support them. That sounds stupid. But take this for an example. My husband sells used computers. A friend asked him to sell a computer for him but asked that any potential customers not open the box or turn on the computer. My husband agreed. (Don't ask me why) Anyway a customer came and agreed to buy the computer. Since he agreed my husband allowed him to open and turn on the computer. Then the guy did not buy it. My husband was really upset because his friend would be angry. Here is what I mean by support but not agree.
I did not agree with my husband about letting the guy open the computer because he had no money in his hand. However I had to support him. So I said, "if your friend is angry with your decision then he should have sold the computer by himself." Hubby was impressed with the support.
For sex this means that the one able to have the sex will really want it one day. But since the other cannot have it it will be difficult but you agreed to support "him" emotionally. Therefore having sex with someone else will not fall into this category as it will hurt him. There are things you can do to relieve the tension and it needs to be discussed. For example if it is you who can have sex and you know tensions will arise, talk to him or her about masturbation. If it is acceptable to both of you then it can be done to help relieve this tension.
A marriage is also based on friendship, compromise, and respect. That is how two people who are unable to have a sexual marriage get through it. Most marriages start off with sex but it seems that many stop having it much later in life but still stay married that is because their marriage has developed into a deep love and respect and sex just isn't necessary for that to happen anymore. So in order for you all to get married, a good deep commitment, friendship and respect is needed on both your parts.
If the person say is paralyzed then they would need to get married for more than just a care giver. Because if that was the case then the caregiver would wear out and be really tempted to cheat. It would also be selfish for the person to only want that without giving anything in return.
To help the marriage last it must be a mutually fulfilling relationship for both.
2007-12-16 04:38:23 · answer #3 · answered by bssd12000 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
of course. u can do whatever if u both agree. i was reading an article it is like 30 or more percent live in sexless marriage which THEY BOTH have chosen. there re always frigid women and impotent men
2007-12-16 05:06:51 · answer #4 · answered by yeahright 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Frankly, I don't see the point of such an arrangement. Marraige is about committing 100% to another person. Both people would have to have the same desire to never consumate the marriage. Non-consumation remains a legitimate cause for the purposes of divorce.
2007-12-16 06:29:43 · answer #5 · answered by CountTheDays 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
How is it possible?!?!? It is the same with all married couples, WE LIE TO EACH OTHER and WE LIE TO OURSELVES!!! The second you both said "I DO" the loving relationship was over. Good luck!!! Don't worry it isn't just you.
2007-12-16 09:12:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
These might help.
http://www.asexuality.org/home/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asexuality
http://asexuality.meetup.com/
http://abcnews.go.com/2020/Sex/story?id=1759069
2007-12-16 04:28:06 · answer #7 · answered by Aurora79 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
:L
Beats mE!
i would be lost
2007-12-16 05:48:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋