English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

a. their widespread invasions of Asian kingdoms
b. the conquest of Scandinavia in 911 by Charlemagne
c. the Frankish policy of settling them and converting them to Christianity.
d.their desire to sail to America

2007-12-15 03:36:24 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

I hope this is not a school assignment otherwise your history teacher needs to seriously consider another career. Each of the 4 possible answers makes absolutely no sense!

a. there was no widespread invasion of Asia by the Vikings and even if there had been, how would that make them part of European civilization??????

b. as Jaric19 said, Charlemagne never conquered Scandinavia and he died almost a hundred years before 911.

c. once the Franks had converted to christianity it is true that they tried to end paganism in their kingdom (which took centuries) but they never had a policy of "settling" the Vikings. And would you say pagan civilizations such as Ancient Greek, Roman or Celtic ones were not part of European civilizations and did not influence modern European civilization just because they had not been christianized?

d. the Vikings had a brief settlement in Newfoundland but I still don't see how that would make them part of European civilization...or how they could have had a desire to sail to a land that they had never heard of until they reached it.

As far as I know, Scandinavia is part of Europe anyway so it is only natural that one of Europe's peoples should have had some influence on the continent's civilization. They certainly influenced the civilizations of Western Europe through their conquests but mostly through their settlements in Normandy and the British Isles (especially Ireland). I don't know much about their influence in the cultures of the Eastern European countries in which they settled.

In any case, none of the 4 answers makes any sense although if this is for school I suspect the teacher is expecting anwer c.
Answer c. is by far the least stupid one but it is not a correct answer either. European civilization did not start with christianity (nor do you become European by converting to christianity), christianity is a major and unifying component of European civilization but does not alone define European civilization. And one again, the Franks never had a policy of settling the Vikings. They did try to buy peace from them at times because they were already so busy trying to unify their kingdom and weakened by fighting on different fronts.

The wording of the question itself is really peculiar: the Vikings were not "made part of European civilization", they were just one the many early European peoples that contributed to what we now call European civilization.

2007-12-15 15:38:30 · answer #1 · answered by Millie 5 · 1 0

a. They didn't invade any asian kingdoms. The further east they went was Rus and Constantinople.
b. Charlemagne was long dead in 911 and he never conquered Scandinavia
c. The franks had little influence on the whereabouts of the Vikings. Charles the Simple granted them normandy but it was a one time stand. You can't call this a policy.
d. They were explorers true but they couldn't possibly have the desire to explore a place whose existence was unknown to them.

The right answer is : Rollo (Rolf) 's extortion of Normandy coupled with William's conquest of england.

2007-12-15 05:30:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

c. the Frankish policy of settling them and converting them to Christianity

2007-12-15 04:12:32 · answer #3 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 0

NONE OF THE ABOVE

They did it to themselves by conquering large portions of Northern Europe and slowly assimilating into it.

2007-12-15 19:24:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

ill suck it

2016-11-21 05:42:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

this dick

2015-12-13 09:56:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers