8pq^2(2pq-3p+5q)
16p^2q^3-24p^2q^2+40p^2q^3
2007-12-14 17:01:15
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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do you want me to simplify?
all you need to do is use distributive .
8pq^2(2pq – 3p + 5q)
8(2) = 16. Now p times p is p^2 because you have to imagine that there is an imaginary exp of 1 on it. and whenever you multiply exp, you ADD them. same goes for Q. q^2 times q equals q^3.
do that to each of the numbers and you will get
16p^2q^3-24p^2q^2+40pq^3.
wow, what a long answer. haha.
2007-12-14 20:21:00
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answer #2
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answered by npc_fg 2
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i may be wrong, but this is the best i can do. just watch the changes.
8pq^2(2pq – 3p + 5q)---multiply each variable
8 x (2 - 3 + 5) x p x (p - p) x q x (q + q)---simplify
32 x p x q x 2q
32pq2q------------re-add ^2
(32pq2q)^2
i got a feeling in my gut i am wrong.....
2007-12-14 17:07:34
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answer #3
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answered by Randy 3
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8pq^2 (2pq - 3p + 5q)
16 p^2 q^3 - 24 p^2q^2 + 40pq^3
now that wasn't hard - was it
numbers to numbers
letters add to letters
2007-12-14 16:48:42
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answer #4
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answered by tom4bucs 7
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I think you want to multiply it out.
8pq^2(2pq) + 8pq^2(– 3p) + 8pq^2(5q)
16p^2q^3 + I think you can finish.
2007-12-14 16:59:36
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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everyone who answered you question is obviously clueless!
^ means to the power so:
your equation is the same as:
(8pq^2)(2pq)-(8pq^2)(3p)+(8pq^2)(5q)=
16p^2q^3-24p^2q^2+40pq^3
2007-12-14 16:51:45
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answer #6
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answered by Padambi 3
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I do not know that and I am sorry. I congratulate you thoe for studying maths. :) Keep going and you'll get yourself a good report and career! Another bonus is you will be smart and help other kids that need help.
So keep studying :)
2007-12-14 16:46:59
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answer #7
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answered by Lois 3
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huh thats a toughie
2007-12-14 16:45:33
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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no clue what that problem is saying
2007-12-15 13:31:03
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answer #9
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answered by Jill 2
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is this supposed to be equal to anything?
2007-12-14 16:45:55
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answer #10
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answered by ghettogal 3
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