2007-12-14 02:31:51 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
FYI: I am NOT referring to myself.
2007-12-14 03:26:37 · update #1
that would be pretty sad if the man wanted to divorce his wife for that reason alone that is especially if it's no fault of her own. That may have been a big deal 100yrs ago or in another country, but if the wife knew that was important to her husband and she hid her infertillity or whatever from him than that is wrong on her part.
2007-12-16 05:34:29 · answer #1 · answered by Azalea 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
well the topic SHOULD have come up, thats ridiculous that it did not. I mean, how well did you know her? If adoption or no children is out of the question, and spouse wants child of own, it will not be a happy marriage if compromise cannot be had. It will end up in divorce. Sad, in the future discuss EVERYTHING prior to marriage.
2007-12-14 02:35:56 · answer #2 · answered by Brittney 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That would just be rude. Children should have been talked about before marriage. If the infertile spouse knew before marriage that she could not concieve, then it was her responsibility to tell him. If that information was not discovered until after they married, then it should not be grounds for divorce as the vows don't say "if no children, we will part".
2007-12-14 02:36:59 · answer #3 · answered by MJ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hi, any woman that is a woman checks her self out always, at least twice a year. she knew before she married unless she's 19 and was a virgin. i'm trying to say you have been defrauded,like me.i divorced my husband because i found out after i married that he had all kind of illnesses and he promised me a baby,i am 39 and lost 3 babies and everytime i go for a check up they ell me something about my body and pregnancy planning for the future.anyway my ex-husband promised i could stay home be on full bed rest to have a baby and 6 months after marriage he said he changed his mind,but i being the wife at the time called the doctor and got the rest of the puzzle that he didn't tell me, my ex couldn't have kids at 45 years old because of prostate cancer and if thats not fraud then what is? the doctor told me he knew before i ever met him. the doctor said all people that get check ups knows it's just what they choose to tell you. but they always at the end get caught up. i divorced was only married for 9 months. good luck.you will regret not having a baby,i think about it everyday and it feels as if something in my life is miss.
2007-12-14 02:46:46 · answer #4 · answered by michele 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It may not have come up but it shoulda been brought up by the one who couldn't have the kids prior to marriage. Yes, grounds for divorce! Thats not fair to the one that wants to have kids that the other kept it a secret and thats just it, it was kept a secret. Now, if this was found out after marriage then no, not grounds for divorce!
2007-12-14 02:43:19 · answer #5 · answered by ♥Gotta Luv Pure Evil ♥ 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
straight to the point; if having biological kids were THAT important to him, that topic needed full discussion before marriage. Really. However, what is done is done. It all comes down to how bad he wants/needs to have biological kids. If it is that strong, it would be better for everyone if the marriage ended. If not that strong, then drop the issue.
2007-12-14 02:57:40 · answer #6 · answered by lmspencr 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nay !! Although, that IS a Topic that should have been discussed before Marriage. There is Always the Adoption Option !! Good Luck !!!
2007-12-14 02:37:05 · answer #7 · answered by casper 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
How could the topic never come up? That's one of the most important issues you have to discuss before marriage.
2007-12-14 02:38:45 · answer #8 · answered by LB 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Na. It isn't her fault. There are other ways to have children, so to me it isn't a reason. Now if she was able and said she would and then after marriage decided she didn't want kids, that would be different.
This would be covered under sickness and health to me. This is a health issue, not a choice.
2007-12-14 03:01:48 · answer #9 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, as you said, the topic never came up. That means your vows were "till death do us part" or something, not "till death do us part unless I can't have babies". So no.
If he married you and it wasn't a condition of your marriage, then he can't make it a condition now.
Unfortunately, if you are in the U.S., he doesn't need grounds for divorce.
2007-12-14 02:35:32 · answer #10 · answered by slinkywizzard 4 · 4⤊ 0⤋