The special condition Mexico stipulated for settlers in it's territory was ____ to the ____ government.
???
2007-12-14 02:15:11 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
That is kind of broad....my best guess would be allegiance to Mexico.....
2007-12-14 03:18:26 · answer #1 · answered by Kate the Great 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, first off, can I suggest you read anything about the colonization of Texas. However I would put "loyalty" and "Mexican" in the blanks.
This lack of loyalty to the Mexican government is what created the Texas problem. It wasn't "Texans" being overrun by blood-thirsty Mexicans; although Texans would disagree with this.
2007-12-14 02:44:20 · answer #2 · answered by Gordon P 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
loyalty to the Spanish gvt
Mexico was a Spanish colony. All discovered gold required tithing to the King, the Church was used to control the local populations.
2007-12-14 10:36:49 · answer #3 · answered by nowaynohow 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
understanding and nice.....kinder, more gentle
2007-12-14 07:22:52 · answer #4 · answered by bikinkawboy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋