Should northern and English textile manufacturers be held partially responsible for the slave South? Why or why not? To what extent did the plantation system make the South a benighted(morally corrupt or backwards) region from the antebellum period on?
(I'm not looking for an easy answer to a test question, just for viewpoints that I may not have given consideration to, so do me a favor and don't accuse me of trying to cheat. I just want to do well on my test and am following up what studying I've already done with a question)
2007-12-13 04:01:36 · 1 answers · asked by TBomber 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
There were other crops that could have sustained the system, just not as well.
Yes, the need for more textiles did drive the slave industry.
Morally corrupt? Based on what? Other than the issue of slavery, which people have taken differently than it was, the South remained the most religious region of the nation.
2007-12-13 04:12:15 · answer #1 · answered by Yun 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋