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middle-easterners?or blacks?

2007-12-13 03:30:06 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Other - Cultures & Groups

9 answers

Just take a leisurely look through the answers you've been given to the same question under this and all the other names you go by.

2007-12-13 19:32:42 · answer #1 · answered by minefelloff 6 · 1 0

You use the term "middle-eastern" but I wonder if you don't mean Muslims? If so, Karl Marx answered this best:
"Religious distress is at the same time the expression of real distress and the protest against real distress. Religion is the sigh of the oppressed creature, the heart of a heartless world, just as it is the spirit of a spiritless situation. It is the opium of the people."
Marx is saying that religion’s purpose is to create illusory fantasies for the poor and oppressed. The reality of their living conditions prevent them from finding true happiness in this life, so religion tells them that this is OK because they will find true happiness in the next life. At the same time Marx is also saying people are in distress and religion provides solace, just as people who are in pain receive relief from opiate-based drugs. What it comes down to is criticism of a society that uses religion to oppress people rather than of religion which tries to provide a bit of solace.
Why do "people generally avoid them"? Too many suicide bombings tend to make people fearful of a group willing to allow themselves to become human suicide bombs in the "name of Allah". That is an "opiate" more potent and dangerous than anything imaginable; yet that is what it is.
I think from this point forward, your questions derail. There is very little correlation between reasons for middle-eastern and Afro-American black oppression. You cannot compare measures of oppression between such distinctively different and wide-encompassing groups of people.

2007-12-15 17:34:05 · answer #2 · answered by KittyKat 3 · 0 0

Women in middle east
While slavery only lasted 3 centuries in the west, it has lasted 14 centuries in the Middle East and exists today in many Muslim countries.

He explains the book in this short video and it is very interesting.

It explains that when Arab slave traders would raid black villages to the south they would kill the adults and kidnap the children.

The boy children were indoctrinated into an Islamic army for the Arabs and the girls were taken as household and sex slaves.

The reason their were not that many black descendants in the middle east is because the black male children were castrated so they could not reproduce.

There were a few black Africans who grew up and because they curried favor with their masters were allowed to also be slave traders.

2007-12-13 12:08:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Oppression is subjective. It comes down not only to what opportunities exist (or don't) for these people, but also how the perceive it. If people are oppressed and have few options in life, but are nonetheless very happy and content with their position within society, the oppression factor is much less.

2007-12-13 11:32:52 · answer #4 · answered by Buying is Voting 7 · 0 2

In American society, everyone who isn't in the top 5% of the wealthy are being marginalized constantly and consistantly. It's still not a safe place to be a minority, female or young. As long as white men are allowed to wield such economic power, the rest of us are pretty much screwed!

2007-12-13 11:42:00 · answer #5 · answered by Stephen C 4 · 0 1

In which society? LOL

No seriously, there is no oppression measurement test.

2007-12-13 11:32:06 · answer #6 · answered by kelly4u2 5 · 0 1

Middle-aged white tax payers.

2007-12-13 11:45:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

middle-eastern women

2007-12-13 11:48:19 · answer #8 · answered by Dreamy™ 4 · 0 2

Both groups suffer equally.

2007-12-13 11:32:52 · answer #9 · answered by annswers 6 · 0 2

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