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2007-12-12 22:40:47 · 3 answers · asked by katherina w 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

please state your opinion

2007-12-12 22:58:45 · update #1

3 answers

Your question is not complete.

2007-12-12 22:54:54 · answer #1 · answered by regerugged 7 · 0 0

Strict liability means the accused person is held responsible regardless of his or her intent. Therefore, I'm assuming that you're asking about non-muslim persons, like the Sudan teacher in the news recently, who are held liable for violations of laws that are based on muslim principles (like not naming a Teddy bear "mohammed"). The interesting question you raise is whether the government's law should make exceptions for foreigners who don't know much about the country's religion. I guess it boils down to the islamic concept of "justice" in the particular country, and this is not something we can answer based on logic. It's a religious question and is not amenable to a rational answer.

2007-12-12 23:24:54 · answer #2 · answered by alex42z 3 · 0 0

What??????????????????????

2007-12-12 22:50:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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